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NEW QUESTION 509
What is a characteristic of Cisco DNA Northbound APIs?

A.    They simplify the management of network infrastructure devices.
B.    They enable automation of network infrastructure based on intent.
C.    They utilize RESTCONF.
D.    They utilize multivendor support APIs.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 510
What is the role of the RP in PIM sparse mode?

A.    The RP responds to the PIM join messages with the source of requested multicast group.
B.    The RP maintains default aging timeouts for all multicast streams requested by the receivers.
C.    The RP acts as a control-plane node and does not receive or forward multicast packets.
D.    The RP is the multicast that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 511
What is a Type 2 hypervisor?

A.    installed as an application on an already installed operating system
B.    runs directly on a physical server and includes its own operating system
C.    supports over-allocation of physical resources
D.    also referred to as a “bare metal hypervisor” because it sits directly on the physical server

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 512
An engineer is configuring a GRE tunnel interface in the default mode. The engineer has assigned an IPv4 address on the tunnel and sourced the tunnel from an Ethernet interface. Which option also is required on the tunnel interface before it is operational?

A.    (config-if)#tunnel destination <ip address>
B.    (config-if)#keepalive <seconds retries>
C.    (config-if)#ip mtu <value>
D.    (config-if)#ip tcp adjust-mss <value>

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 513
A network engineer must configure a router to send logging messages to a syslog server based on these requirements:
– uses syslog IP address: 10.10.10.1
– uses a reliable protocol
– must not use any well-known TCP/UDP ports
Which configuration must be used?

A.    logging host 10.10.10.1 transport tcp port 1024
B.    logging origin-id 10.10.10.1
C.    logging host 10.10.10.1 transport udp port 1023
D.    logging host 10.10.10.1 transport udp port 1024

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 514
An engineer is configuring a new SSID to present users with a splash page for authentication. Which WLAN Layer 3 setting must be configured to provide this functionally?

A.    CCKM
B.    WPA2 Policy
C.    Local Policy
D.    Web Policy

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 515
An engineer is implementing a route map to support redistribution within BGP. The route map must configure to permit all unmatched routes. Which action must the engineer perform to complete this task?

A.    Include a permit statement as the first entry.
B.    Include at least one explicit deny statement.
C.    Remove the implicit deny entry.
D.    Include a permit statement as the last entry.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 516
An engineer is implementing MPLS OAM to monitor traffic within the MPLS domain. Which action must the engineer perform to prevent from being forwarded beyond the service provider domain when the LSP is down?

A.    Disable IP redirects only on outbound interfaces.
B.    Implement the destination address for the LSP echo request packet in the 127.x.y.z/8 network.
C.    Disable IP redirects on all ingress interfaces.
D.    Configure a private IP address as the destination address of the headend router of Cisco MPLS TE.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 517
An engineer is implementing a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to improve the streaming experience for the clients of a video-on-demand server. Which action must the engineer perform to configure extended discovery to support the MPLS LDP session between the headend and tailend routers?

A.    Configure the interface bandwidth to handle TCP and UDP traffic between the LDP peers.
B.    Configure a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel on both ends of the session.
C.    Configure an access list on the interface to permit TCP and UDP traffic.
D.    Configure a targeted neighbor session.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 518
What is a characteristic of YANG?

A.    It is a Cisco proprietary language that models NETCONF data.
B.    It allows model developers to create custom data types.
C.    It structures data in an object-oriented fashion to promote model reuse.
D.    It provides loops and conditionals to control now within models.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 519
What is one difference between saltstack and ansible?

A.    SaltStack uses an API proxy agent to program Cisco boxes on agent mode, whereas Ansible uses a Telnet connection.
B.    SaltStack uses the Ansible agent on the box, whereas Ansible uses a Telnet server on the box.
C.    SaltStack is constructed with minion, whereas Ansible is constructed with YAML.
D.    SaltStack uses SSH to interact with Cisco devices, whereas Ansible uses an event bus.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 520
A network administrator has designed a network with two multilayer switches on the distribution layer, which act as default gateways for the end hosts. Which two technologies allow every end host in a VLAN to use both gateways? (Choose two.)

A.    GLBP
B.    HSRP
C.    MHSRP
D.    VSS
E.    VRRP

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 521
In Cisco SD_WAN, which protocol is used to measure link quality?

A.    OMP
B.    BFD
C.    RSVP
D.    IPsec

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 522
Which two operational models enable an AP to scan one or more wireless channels for rouge access points and at the same time provide wireless services to clients? (Choose two.)

A.    Rouge detector.
B.    Sniffer.
C.    FlexConnect.
D.    Local.
E.    Monitor.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 523
What are two benefits of virtual switching when compared to hardware switching? (Choose two.)

A.    increased MTU size
B.    hardware independence
C.    VM-level isolation
D.    increased flexibility
E.    extended 802.1Q VLAN range

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 524
Which features does Cisco EDR use to provide threat detection and response protection?

A.    containment, threat intelligence, and machine learning
B.    firewalling and intrusion prevention
C.    container-based agents
D.    cloud analysis and endpoint firewall controls

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 525
What is one benefit of implementing a VSS architecture?

A.    It provides multiple points of management for redundancy and improved support.
B.    It uses GLBP to balance traffic between gateways.
C.    It provides a single point of management for improved efficiency.
D.    It uses a single database to manage configuration for multiple switches.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 526
Where is radio resource management performed in a cisco SD-access wireless solution?

A.    DNA Center
B.    control plane node
C.    wireless controller
D.    Cisco CMX

Answer: C
Explanation:
Fabric wireless controllers manage and control the fabric-mode APs using the same general model as the traditional local-mode controllers which offers the same operational advantages such as mobility control and radio resource management. A significant difference is that client traffic from wireless endpoints is not tunneled from the APs to the wireless controller. Instead, communication from wireless clients is encapsulated in VXLAN by the fabric APs which build a tunnel to their first-hop fabric edge node. Wireless traffic it tunneled to the edge nodes as the edge nodes provide fabric services such as the Layer 3 Anycast Gateway, policy, and traffic enforcement.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/cisco-sda-design-guide.html

NEW QUESTION 527
Which device makes the decision for a wireless client to roam?

A.    wireless client
B.    wireless LAN controller
C.    access point
D.    WCS location server

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 528
How is MSDP used to interconnect multiple PIM-SM domains?

A.    MSDP depends on BGP or multiprotocol BGP for mterdomam operation.
B.    MSDP SA request messages are used to request a list of active sources for a specific group.
C.    SDP allows a rendezvous point to dynamically discover active sources outside of its domain.
D.    MSDP messages are used to advertise active sources in a domain.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 529
What is the function of the LISP map resolver?

A.    To send traffic to non-LISP sites when connected to a service provider that does not accept nonroutable ElDs as packet sources.
B.    To connect a site to the LISP-capable part of a core network publish the EID-to-RLOC mappings for the site, and respond to map-request messages.
C.    To decapsulate map-request messages from ITRs and forward the messages to the MS.
D.    To advertise routable non-LISP traffic from one address family to LISP sites in a different address family.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 530
Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

A.    sniffer
B.    monitor
C.    bridge
D.    local

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 531
An engineer configures HSRP group 37. The configuration does not modify the default virtual MAC address. Which virtual MAC address does the group use?

A.    C0:00:00:25:00:00
B.    00:00:0c:07:ac:37
C.    C0:39:83:25:258:5
D.    00:00:0c:07:ac:25

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 532
What is the function of Cisco DNA center in a Cisco SD-access deployment?

A.    It is responsible for routing decisions inside the fabric.
B.    It is responsible for the design, management, deployment, provisioning and assurance of the fabric network devices.
C.    It possesses information about all endpoints, nodes and external networks related to the fabric.
D.    It provides integration and automation for all nonfabric nodes and their fabric counterparts.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 533
Which new enhancement was implemented in Wi-Fi 6?

A.    Wi-Fi Protected Access 3
B.    4096 Quadrature Amplitude Modulation Mode
C.    Channel Bonding
D.    Uplink and Downlink Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 534
Which Cisco DNA center application is responsible for group-based access control permissions?

A.    Design
B.    Provision
C.    Assurance
D.    Policy

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 535
Which technology is used as the basis for the Cisco SD-access data plane?

A.    IPsec
B.    LISP
C.    VXLAN
D.    802.1Q

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 536
Which threat defense mechanism, when deployed at the network perimeter, protects against zero-day attacks?

A.    intrusion prevention
B.    stateful inspection
C.    sandbox
D.    SSL decryption

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 537
Which network devices secure API platform?

A.    next-generation intrusion detection systems
B.    Layer 3 transit network devices
C.    content switches
D.    web application firewalls

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 538
Which protocol is used to encrypt control plane traffic between SD-WAN controllers and SD-WAN endpoints?

A.    DTLS
B.    IPsec
C.    PGP
D.    HTTPS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 539
……

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NEW QUESTION 231
What is a benefit of model-driven programmability?

A.    It addresses the static architecture of traditional networks being decentralized and complex.
B.    By modeling data, it ensures that vast quantities of data are usable for monitoring.
C.    It provides a programmatic and standards-based way of writing configurations to any network device.
D.    It simplifies management and operations by decoupling the networking hardware from its control mechanism.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 232
Which tool is used to block all traffic to the domain by using a single API call?

A.    Cisco ISE
B.    Cisco Firepower
C.    Cisco AMP
D.    Cisco Umbrella

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 233
Which HTTP response code should be returned when the request is completed, but there is no content to send for the request?

A.    100
B.    204
C.    302
D.    402

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 234
What is the purpose of the first three pairs of digits in a MAC address?

A.    defines a routing identifier for the client
B.    indicates the IP address of the client in Hex
C.    defines packet forwarding priority sent or received by the adapter
D.    indicates vendor of the network card or adapter

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 235
What are two considerations when selecting the “best route” for a network device to reach its destination? (Choose two.)

A.    MAC address
B.    metrics
C.    administrative distance
D.    IP address
E.    subnet mask

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 236
What are two functions of a routing table on a network device? (Choose two.)

A.    It lists entries more than two hops away.
B.    It lists the routes to a particular destination.
C.    It lists the routes to drop traffic.
D.    It lists hosts that are one hop away.
E.    It lists the static and dynamic entries.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 237
What are two key capabilities of Cisco Finesse? (Choose two.)

A.    Finesse includes an RPC API that enables the development of custom gadgets.
B.    Agents access Finesse from a browser without needing to install or configure anything on the client machine.
C.    Finesse automatically collects telemetry data.
D.    An OpenDNS utility is preconfigured and ready to use on Finesse.
E.    Gadget containers provide a seamless experience in a single user interface.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 238
Which tool allows changes to the configuration management toolset to be tested?

A.    Cisco VIRL
B.    NAPALM
C.    Ansible
D.    pyATS

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 239
A developer creates a script that configured multiple Cisco IOS XE devices in a corporate infrastructure. The internal test environment is unavailable, and no maintenance window is available to test on a low-priority production environment. Which resource is used to test the code before it is applied to the production environment?

A.    Code Exchange
B.    Cisco DevNet Learning Labs
C.    Cisco DevNet Sandbox
D.    Cisco Support

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 240
What are two benefits of using VLANs? (Choose two.)

A.    limits the devices that can join the network
B.    segments the broadcast domain extends the broadcast domain
C.    allows all network devices to be accessible from any host on the network
D.    enables the logical grouping of devices that belong to different Layer 2 devices

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 241
In the test-driven development model, what is changed after a test fails?

A.    test
B.    schedule
C.    project requirements
D.    code

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 242
What is a requirement when authenticating a RESTCONF API session with a router that runs Cisco IOS XE Software?

A.    No authentication is required.
B.    OAuth must be used.
C.    Basic authentication must be used.
D.    A token must be retrieved and the associated string must be embedded in the X-Auth-Token header.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 243
What is a benefit of test-driven development?

A.    early customer involvement
B.    increased code quality
C.    faster releases that have minimal features
D.    strict adherence to product requirements

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 244
Which configuration management tool has an agentless capability?

A.    Chef
B.    Puppet
C.    Ansible
D.    CFEngine

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 245
In which two ways is an application characterized when interacting with a webhook? (Choose two.)

A.    codec
B.    receiver
C.    transaction monitor
D.    processor
E.    listener

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 246
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the types of management from the left onto the levels at which they are performed on the right.
……

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NEW QUESTION 761
A technician wants to employ RAID to store a large amount of data and has a large number of drives available. Which of the following RAID levels should the technician utilize to achieve maximum capacity and fault tolerance?

A.    0
B.    1
C.    5
D.    10

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 762
An administrator wishes to deploy network storage that provides block-level disk access. The solution must use the existing Ethernet infrastructure. Which of the following would BEST achieve this?

A.    NAS
B.    CIFS
C.    FC
D.    iSCSI
E.    DAS

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 763
A technician is troubleshooting a blade server with correctable memory errors on only one DIMM. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the technician take FIRST?

A.    Replace the suspected failed DIMM with a new DIMM.
B.    Swap locations of the DIMM with a known-good DIMM.
C.    Replace all the DIMMs in the suspect bank of memory.
D.    Apply all OS and applications software patches.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 764
An administrator has been given an OS DVD to install on a server. During setup, however, the DVD gives an architecture mismatch warning. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A.    The administrator is trying to install the OS on a system equipped with ECC memory.
B.    The administrator is trying to install a 64-bit OS on a system with 32-bit CPUs.
C.    The administrator is trying to install on a system with multicore CPUs.
D.    The administrator is trying to install on an outdated BIOS.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 765
A server technician is setting up a 42U rack. The technician needs to install a 5U cable tray spacer at the 42U position. Which of the following is the amount of space the 5U cable tray spacer is taking up?

A.    5.75in (14.6cm)
B.    6.75in (17.1cm)
C.    8.75in (22.2cm)
D.    11.75in (29.8cm)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 766
The server administrator is finding a solution to allow users to access the company’s internal network resources when they are not in the office. Which of the following should the administrator configure to allow the users to access the internal network resources while they are not in the office?

A.    RDP
B.    DMZ
C.    VPN
D.    RAS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 767
A server technician is walking through the server room and notices a red or amber light on a drive in the server. No alerts have been received. Which of the following should be checked FIRST on the server?

A.    RAID configuration utility.
B.    Performance monitor.
C.    Air flow.
D.    Temperature sensors.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 768
Two servers were stolen from a small business with limited physical security. Which of the following are the BEST methods to prevent physical security breaches of the server room? (Choose two.)

A.    Store important data off site.
B.    Place servers in a rack or cabinet with a lock.
C.    Set up card-reader access to secure the server room.
D.    Move the servers to a different location.
E.    Install cameras in the building.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 769
A company uses a physical server for both email and DNS services. The company recently moved to a cloud-based email platform and no longer needs email to run on this server. After removing the email application from the server, which of the following should be done NEXT to further harden the system?

A.    Disable port 22.
B.    Disable port 53.
C.    Disable port 67.
D.    Disable port 143.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 770
A server technician has installed a full rack in a server room and must place the following items in the rack:
– One 2U server.
– One 2U firewall.
– One 1U server.
– Two 3U UPS devices.
Which of the following describes how the technician should arrange the rack?

A.    Place one 3U UPS device on the top of the rack and one on the bottom.
B.    Place both 3U UPS devices on the top of the rack.
C.    Place both 3U UPS devices in the center of the rack.
D.    Place both 3U UPS devices on the bottom of the rack.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 771
While updates are being performed on a storage array, one of the virtual hosts loses connectivity to the storage. The server administrator confirms the virtual host has two HBAs, which each have green LEDs showing on the ports. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A.    Improper RAID configuration.
B.    Loose fiber connection.
C.    Incorrect volume partitioning.
D.    Multipathing misconfiguration.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 772
A technician added a new mail relay server to the network. During testing, the server fails to forward mail. Which of the following firewall ports should the technician check?

A.    25
B.    80
C.    110
D.    443

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 773
The server administrator is installing a new server. When booting up the server, the OS installer is unable to find any disk to load the OS. Which of the following should the server administrator perform to solve this issue?

A.    Configure the array controller.
B.    Load the OS from USB.
C.    Change the boot order to PXE.
D.    Move the OS installer to a different USB port.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 774
An administrator uses a DVD to upgrade an application on a server. After completing the upgrade, the administrator restarts the server, but it does not launch the OS correctly. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the boot failure?

A.    Failed RAID array.
B.    Incorrect boot order.
C.    Corrupt BIOS.
D.    Incompatible application.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 775
A technician has a server that requires 120V at 5A. Which of the following is the number of watts the server consumes?

A.    24W
B.    60W
C.    115W
D.    600W

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 776
An administrator is concerned about a volume on a server containing SQL databases with only 3% available disk space. The administrator is considering turning on NTFS compression to create space. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A.    Compressing volumes that contain databases is highly recommended due to the poor space utilization of databases.
B.    Compressing a volume using NTFS is also known as compacting.
C.    Compressing a volume containing databases is not recommended since it slows down the speed.
D.    Adding additional memory is a better solution to a space problem since databases are stored in RAM.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 777
Which of the following failover designs BEST describes a warm site?

A.    It is a site with a current replica of the data. Servers and storage are running and ready to provide services previously provided by the failed site.
B.    Servers and storage are actively running and ready to provide services previously provided by the failed site within an hour or less, though additional time might be required to bring data up to latest copy.
C.    It is a site with a replica of the backups from last night. Servers and storage are in place but are not currently running. Services previously provided by the failed site will be available within 24 hours.
D.    It is a site that has monthly replicas of backup data and a bare-bones server infrastructure to facilitate restores. Servers may need to be provided by a disaster recovery company before services can be restored.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 778
A database server is configured with the database files residing on a separate partition to meet vendor recommendations. The following schedule is used for system backup:
– Full backup Saturday at 12:00 a.m.
– Differential backup daily Sunday through Friday at 12:00 a.m.
– Database backups daily at 12:00 a.m.
New data is loaded into the database on Monday night, and OS patches are installed on Tuesday night. On Wednesday, it is discovered that the data loaded into the database on Monday is corrupted, and the database needs to be restored from Sunday’s backup. Which of the following backup types would BEST allow restoration of the database without affecting the OS patches installed on Tuesday?

A.    Restore the differential backup from Tuesday.
B.    Restore the server from Saturday’s full backup.
C.    Restore the server from Tuesday’s snapshot.
D.    Restore the database backup from Monday.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 779
A technician is connecting a new server to a Fibre Channel SAN. Which of the following needs to be added to the server?

A.    HBA card.
B.    1GB Ethernet card.
C.    SAS controller.
D.    RAID controller.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 780
A server technician has just finished provisioning a Windows server offline. Per company policy, all servers’ network settings must be configured manually. The technician is able to ping the IP addresses of servers on multiple networks. When attempting to join the server to the domain, the technician receives the error: Cannot find domain controller. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this issue?

A.    WINS settings are not configured on the server.
B.    DNS settings are not configured on the server.
C.    The default gateway is not configured on the server.
D.    The subnet mask is not configured on the server.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 781
……

NEW QUESTION 801
The systems administrator is configuring a new iSCSI storage, which will be presented to several servers. Which of the following should the administrator use to present a LUN to a server?

A.    Mask
B.    Initiator
C.    Target
D.    Share

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 802
Which of the following protocols utilize SSH and TCP over port 22 for secure communication? (Choose two.)

A.    SFTP
B.    FTP
C.    TFTP
D.    SCP
E.    FTPS
F.    SMTP

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 803
A server administrator is trying to prevent database administrators from installing programs or making administrative changes to the server. Which of the following should the administrator do to prevent administrative changes on the server?

A.    Enable a policy to require user credentials when making administrative changes.
B.    Enable alerts to send a message when someone tries to make changes.
C.    Enable database administrators to log activities in the system logs.
D.    Enable privileged access auditing in the system logs.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 804
A user reports a Linux server is running slowly. Which of the following tools is an administrator MOST likely to use to check server performance?

A.    top
B.    MRTG
C.    VNC
D.    netstat

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 805
The systems administrator is configuring the UAC on all servers to comply with a security audit. Once completed, all systems administrators will need to provide a special user account to make administrative changes. Which of the following would the systems administrator use to prevent unauthorized changes to the servers?

A.    Implement privileged access controls.
B.    Configure the servers to deny security updates.
C.    Block access to other systems administrators.
D.    Disable unneeded services.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 806
An administrator is configuring external storage that will be accessed by multiple servers via the existing Ethernet at a minimum cost. Which of the following technologies BEST meets these objectives?

A.    NFS
B.    Fibre Channel
C.    HBA Fabric
D.    DAS

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 807
Which of the following network solutions would allow a company to connect securely to its internal network over the Internet?

A.    VMM
B.    VLAN
C.    VNC
D.    VPN

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 808
An administrator needs to install 20 new servers via PXE. Which of the following must be available on the network to complete this task?

A.    TFTP server
B.    DNS server
C.    SFTP server
D.    SCP server

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 809
Users report the system is running slow. The administrator walks into the server room and notices it is noisier than usual. The fans in particular seem to be very loud. Which of the following should the administrator conclude from this observation?

A.    The system is detecting excessive dust.
B.    There is a power surge occurring.
C.    The server may be overheating.
D.    The server has a RAID set in a failed state.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 810
A systems administrator received an alert from the central monitoring tool indicating /var/mail/logs on a Linux system is running out of disk space. Before troubleshooting the issue, the administrator needs to verify the total disk space available on the volume. Which of the following commands would allow the administrator to gather the required information?

A.    df
B.    ls
C.    fsutil
D.    du

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 811
A server administrator has just configured two web front-ends for high availability and even distribution of workload. Which of the following should the administrator implement to achieve the required goals?

A.    Dedicated queuing.
B.    Active-passive clustering.
C.    Round-robin.
D.    Server mirroring.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 812
An administrator notes laptops have been removed from a secure area. Which of the following strategies will BEST ensure laptops remain in the secured area? (Choose two.)

A.    RFID chips on the laptops.
B.    Mantrap in the secure area.
C.    Fingerprint scanners on the laptops.
D.    Cable lock on the laptops.
E.    Security camera in the secure area.
F.    Keypad on the door.

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 813
While installing patches, a systems administrator is disconnected from a server. The administrator attempts to ping the server and receives no response. Which of the following tools is MOST likely to help in this situation?

A.    RDP
B.    iLO
C.    VNC
D.    SSH

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 814
A technician wants to disable USB ports on the server to prevent booting from a flash drive. Which of the following actions should the technician take to accomplish this task?

A.    Disable the USB ports on BIOS setup.
B.    Disable the USB ports on Device Manager.
C.    Disable the USB ports on Control Panel.
D.    Disable the USB ports on UAC.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 815
A server technician has changed a hard disk in a RAID 5 array. The array status is now reported as being in a “degraded” state. Given this scenario, which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A.    Monitor the database index.
B.    Monitor the array rebuild.
C.    Rebuild the filesystem table.
D.    Rebuild the boot sector.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 816
A systems administrator has been directed to implement three-factor authentication for a new secure system. Which of the following authentication methods are redundant and only count as one factor? (Choose two.)

A.    Password.
B.    Keypad code.
C.    RFID chip.
D.    Imitating a gesture.
E.    Fingerprint.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 817
A remote Linux server requires an IP address change before being moved to a new datacenter. The server does not have X installed on it. Which of the following is an administrator MOST likely to use to log in and change the address?

A.    SSH
B.    RDP
C.    VNC
D.    FTP

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 818
A user is trying to connect to www.testnetwork.net with a desktop web browser. The user cannot connect to this website, although other sites can be reached. Which of the following tools should the administrator use at the desktop to determine the specific issue? (Choose two.)

A.    nslookup
B.    ping
C.    route
D.    netuse
E.    netcheck

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 819
A systems administrator is configuring new storage for a high availability server. Which of the following RAID configurations can still function it half its disks are lost?

A.    RAID 1
B.    RAID 3
C.    RAID 5
D.    RAID 6

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 820
An administrator is implementing a RAID 10 array on a new server. Which of the following is the MINIMUM number of disks needed?

A.    Two
B.    Three
C.    Four
D.    Five

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 821
A security administrator wishes to enable multifactor authentication. Which of the following would achieve that objective? (Choose two.)

A.    Security token and dongle.
B.    Fingerprint and one-time passcode.
C.    Username and challenge questions.
D.    Password and PIN.
E.    Voice pattern and retina scan.
F.    Random number generator and passphrase.

Answer: BF

NEW QUESTION 822
A server technician works in a small environment where servers and computers reside on the subnet. Which of the following should the technician create to ensure the servers have the same network setting?

A.    Manual host entries.
B.    DHCP reservations.
C.    Manual DNS entries.
D.    NAT address pool.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 823
A server administrator recently applied a local policy to a computer with gpedit.msc. However, the policy keeps reverting back to its original setting the next day. The server administrator is unaware of what is causing this issue. Which of the following BEST describes what is occurring?

A.    A startup script is running at boot that is reverting the registry key.
B.    A group policy is overriding the local policies on the next group policy refresh.
C.    The antivirus program installed on the system is blocking access to the Program Files directory.
D.    Another administrator is playing a prank by logging in to the machine and reverting the change.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 824
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NEW QUESTION 1
On which of the following is the live acquisition of data for forensic analysis MOST dependent? (Choose two.)

A.    Data accessibility.
B.    Value and volatility of data.
C.    Cryptographic or hash algorithm.
D.    Data retention legislation.
E.    Legal hold.
F.    Right-to-audit clauses.

Answer: BF

NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following incident response steps involves actions to protect critical systems while maintaining business operations?

A.    Investigation
B.    Containment
C.    Recovery
D.    Lessons learned

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
A network engineer needs to build a solution that will allow guests at the company’s headquarters to access the Internet via WiFi. This solution should not allow access to the internal corporate network, but it should require guests to sign off on the acceptable use policy before accessing the Internet. Which of the following should the engineer employ to meet these requirements?

A.    Implement open PSK on the APs.
B.    Deploy a WAF.
C.    Configure WIPS on the APs.
D.    Install a captive portal.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following cloud models provides clients with servers, storage, and networks but nothing else?

A.    SaaS
B.    PaaS
C.    IaaS
D.    DaaS

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
A network administrator needs to build out a new datacenter, with a focus on resiliency and uptime. Which of the following would BEST meet this objective? (Choose two.)

A.    Dual power supply.
B.    Off-site backups.
C.    Automatic OS upgrades.
D.    NIC teaming.
E.    Scheduled penetration testing.
F.    Network-attached storage.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 6
An organization is developing an authentication service for use at the entry and exit ports of country borders. The service will use data feeds obtained from passport systems, passenger manifests, and high- definition video feeds from CCTV systems that are located at the ports. The service will incorporate machine-learning techniques to eliminate biometric enrollment processes while still allowing authorities to identify passengers with increasing accuracy over time. The more frequently passengers travel, the more accurately the service will identify them. Which of the following biometrics will MOST likely be used, without the need for enrollment? (Choose two.)

A.    Voice
B.    Gait
C.    Vein
D.    Facial
E.    Retina
F.    Fingerprint

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 7
After reading a security bulletin, a network security manager is concerned that a malicious actor may have breached the network using the same software flaw. The exploit code is publicly available and has been reported as being used against other industries in the same vertical. Which of the following should the network security manager consult FIRST to determine a priority list for forensic review?

A.    The vulnerability scan output.
B.    The IDS logs.
C.    The full packet capture data.
D.    The SIEM alerts.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
An auditor is performing an assessment of a security appliance with an embedded OS that was vulnerable during the last two assessments. Which of the following BEST explains the appliance’s vulnerable state?

A.    The system was configured with weak default security settings.
B.    The device uses weak encryption ciphers.
C.    The vendor has not supplied a patch for the appliance.
D.    The appliance requires administrative credentials for the assessment.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
A pharmaceutical sales representative logs on to a laptop and connects to the public WiFi to check emails and update reports. Which of the following would be BEST to prevent other devices on the network from directly accessing the laptop? (Choose two.)

A.    Trusted Platform Module
B.    A VPN
C.    A DLP solution
D.    Full disk encryption
E.    A host-based firewall
F.    Antivirus software

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 10
The CSIRT is reviewing the lessons learned from a recent incident. A worm was able to spread unhindered throughout the network and infect a large number of computers and servers. Which of the following recommendations would be BEST to mitigate the impacts of a similar incident in the future?

A.    Install a NIDS device at the boundary.
B.    Segment the network with firewalls.
C.    Update all antivirus signatures daily.
D.    Implement application blacklisting.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
A cybersecurity administrator needs to add disk redundancy for a critical server. The solution must have a two-drive failure for better fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels should the administrator select?

A.    0
B.    1
C.    5
D.    6

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12
A small company that does not have security staff wants to improve its security posture. Which of the following would BEST assist the company?

A.    MSSP
B.    PaaS
C.    IaaS
D.    SOAR

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13
A cybersecurity manager has scheduled biannual meetings with the IT team and department leaders to discuss how they would respond to hypothetical cyberattacks. During these meetings, the manager presents a scenario and injects additional information throughout the session to replicate what might occur in a dynamic cybersecurity event involving the company, its facilities, its data, and its staff. Which of the following describes what the manager is doing?

A.    Developing an incident response plan.
B.    Building a disaster recovery plan.
C.    Conducting a tabletop exercise.
D.    Running a simulation exercise.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 14
A network administrator has been asked to install an IDS to improve the security posture of an organization. Which of the following control types is an IDS?

A.    Detective
B.    Physical
C.    Corrective
D.    Administrative

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15
A startup company is using multiple SaaS and IaaS platforms to stand up a corporate infrastructure and build out a customer-facing web application. Which of the following solutions would be BEST to provide security, manageability, and visibility into the platforms?

A.    SIEM
B.    DLP
C.    SWG
D.    CASB

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
……

NEW QUESTION 106
A security administrator suspects there may be unnecessary services running on a server. Which of the following tools will the administrator MOST likely use to confirm the suspicions?

A.    Nmap
B.    Wireshark
C.    Autopsy
D.    DNSEnum

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 107
An organization with a low tolerance for user inconvenience wants to protect laptop hard drives against loss or data theft. Which of the following would be the MOST acceptable?

A.    SED
B.    HSM
C.    DLP
D.    TPM

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 108
A cybersecurity analyst needs to implement secure authentication to third-party websites without users’ passwords. Which of the following would be the BEST way to achieve this objective?

A.    OAuth
B.    SSO
C.    SAML
D.    PAP

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 109
In which of the following risk management strategies would cybersecurity insurance be used?

A.    Avoidance
B.    Transference
C.    Acceptance
D.    Mitigation

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 110
An organization is developing a plan in the event of a complete loss of critical systems and data. Which of the following plans is the organization MOST likely developing?

A.    Incident response
B.    Communications
C.    Data retention
D.    Disaster recovery

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 111
Which of the following is the purpose of a risk register?

A.    To define the level or risk using probability and likelihood.
B.    To register the risk with the required regulatory agencies.
C.    To identify the risk, the risk owner, and the risk measures.
D.    To formally log the type of risk mitigation strategy the organization is using.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 112
Which of the following BEST describes a security exploit for which a vendor patch is not readily available?

A.    Integer overflow
B.    Zero-day
C.    End of life
D.    Race condition

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 113
A company processes highly sensitive data and senior management wants to protect the sensitive data by utilizing classification labels. Which of the following access control schemes would be BEST for the company to implement?

A.    Discretionary
B.    Rule-based
C.    Role-based
D.    Mandatory

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 114
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. You plan to deploy Azure Cosmos DB databases that will use the SQL API. You need to recommend a solution to provide specific Azure AD user accounts with read access to the Cosmos DB databases. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    shared access signatures (SAS) and conditional access policies
B.    certificates and Azure Key Vault
C.    a resource token and an Access control (IAM) role assignment
D.    master keys and Azure Information Protection policies

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Access control (IAM) pane in the Azure portal is used to configure role-based access control on Azure Cosmos resources. The roles are applied to users, groups, service principals, and managed identities in Active Directory. You can use built-in roles or custom roles for individuals and groups.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/role-based-access-control

NEW QUESTION 2
You are designing an Azure resource deployment that will use Azure Resource Manager templates. The deployment will use Azure Key Vault to store secrets. You need to recommend a solution to meet the following requirements:
– Prevent the IT staff that will perform the deployment from retrieving the secrets directly from Key Vault.
– Use the principle of least privilege.
Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Create a Key Vault access policy that allows all get key permissions, get secret permissions, and get certificate permissions.
B.    From Access policies in Key Vault, enable access to the Azure Resource Manager for template deployment.
C.    Create a Key Vault access policy that allows all list key permissions, list secret permissions, and list certificate permissions.
D.    Assign the IT staff a custom role that includes the Microsoft.KeyVault/Vaults/Deploy/Action permission.
E.    Assign the Key Vault Contributor role to the IT staff.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
B: To access a key vault during template deployment, set enabledForTemplateDeployment on the key vault to true.
D: The user who deploys the template must have the Microsoft.KeyVault/vaults/deploy/action permission for the scope of the resource group and key vault.
Incorrect:
Not E: To grant access to a user to manage key vaults, you assign a predefined key vault Contributor role to the user at a specific scope. If a user has Contributor permissions to a key vault management plane, the user can grant themselves access to the data plane by setting a Key Vault access policy. You should tightly control who has Contributor role access to your key vaults. Ensure that only authorized persons can access and manage your key vaults, keys, secrets, and certificates.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/templates/key-vault-parameter
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/key-vault/general/overview-security

NEW QUESTION 3
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. You plan to provide users with access to shared files by using Azure Storage. The users will be provided with different levels of access to various Azure file shares based on their user account or their group membership. You need to recommend which additional Azure services must be used to support the planned deployment. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    an Azure AD enterprise application
B.    Azure Information Protection
C.    an Azure AD Domain Services (Azure AD DS) instance
D.    an Azure Front Door instance

Answer: C
Explanation:
Azure Files supports identity-based authentication over Server Message Block (SMB) through two types of Domain Services: on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) and Azure Active Directory Domain Services (Azure AD DS).
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-files-identity-auth-active-directory-domain-service-enable

NEW QUESTION 4
You have 100 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2 and host Microsoft SQL Server 2014 instances. The instances host databases that have the following characteristics:
– The largest database is currently 3 TB. None of the databases will ever exceed 4 TB.
– Stored procedures are implemented by using CLR.
You plan to move all the data from SQL Server to Azure. You need to recommend an Azure service to host the databases. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Whenever possible, minimize management overhead for the migrated databases.
– Minimize the number of database changes required to facilitate the migration.
– Ensure that users can authenticate by using their Active Directory credentials.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Azure SQL Database elastic pools
B.    Azure SQL Database Managed Instance
C.    Azure SQL Database single databases
D.    SQL Server 2016 on Azure virtual machines

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-managed-instance

NEW QUESTION 5
You have an Azure subscription that contains 100 virtual machines. You plan to design a data protection strategy to encrypt the virtual disks. You need to recommend a solution to encrypt the disks by using Azure Disk Encryption. The solution must provide the ability to encrypt operating system disks and data disks. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    a certificate
B.    a key
C.    a passphrase
D.    a secret

Answer: B
Explanation:
For enhanced virtual machine (VM) security and compliance, virtual disks in Azure can be encrypted. Disks are encrypted by using cryptographic keys that are secured in an Azure Key Vault. You control these cryptographic keys and can audit their use.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/encrypt-disks

NEW QUESTION 6
You have data files in Azure Blob storage. You plan to transform the files and move them to Azure Data Lake Storage. You need to transform the data by using mapping data flow. Which Azure service should you use?

A.    Azure Data Box Gateway
B.    Azure Storage Sync
C.    Azure Data Factory
D.    Azure Databricks

Answer: C
Explanation:
You can use Copy Activity in Azure Data Factory to copy data from and to Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2, and use Data Flow to transform data in Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/connector-azure-data-lake-storage

NEW QUESTION 7
Your company purchases an app named App1. You plan to run App1 on seven Azure virtual machines in an Availability Set. The number of fault domains is set to 3. The number of update domains is set to 20. You need to identify how many App1 instances will remain available during a period of planned maintenance. How many App1 instances should you identify?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    6
D.    7

Answer: C
Explanation:
Only one update domain is rebooted at a time. Here there are 7 update domain with one VM each (and 13 update domain with no VM).
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/manage-availability

NEW QUESTION 8
You have an Azure Storage v2 account named storage1. You plan to archive data to storage1. You need to ensure that the archived data cannot be deleted for five years. The solution must prevent administrators from deleting the data.
Solution: You create a file share and snapshots.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead you could create an Azure Blob storage container, and you configure a legal hold access policy.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutable-storage

NEW QUESTION 9
You have an on-premises Hyper-V cluster that hosts 20 virtual machines. Some virtual machines run Windows Server 2016 and some run Linux. You plan to migrate the virtual machines to an Azure subscription. You need to recommend a solution to replicate the disks of the virtual machines to Azure. The solution must ensure that the virtual machines remain available during the migration of the disks.
Solution: You recommend implementing a Recovery Services vault, and then using Azure Site Recovery.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Site Recovery can replicate on-premises VMware VMs, Hyper-V VMs, physical servers (Windows and Linux), Azure Stack VMs to Azure.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-overview

NEW QUESTION 10
You have an on-premises network and an Azure subscription. The on-premises network has several branch offices. A branch office in Toronto contains a virtual machine named VM1 that is configured as a file server. Users access the shared files on VM1 from all the offices. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the users can access the shared files as quickly as possible if the Toronto branch office is inaccessible. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    an Azure file share and Azure File Sync
B.    a Recovery Services vault and Windows Server Backup
C.    a Recovery Services vault and Azure Backup
D.    Azure blob containers and Azure File Sync

Answer: A
Explanation:
Use Azure File Sync to centralize your organization’s file shares in Azure Files, while keeping the flexibility, performance, and compatibility of an on-premises file server. Azure File Sync transforms Windows Server into a quick cache of your Azure file share. You need an Azure file share in the same region that you want to deploy Azure File Sync.
Incorrect:
Not C: Backups would be a slower solution.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-sync-files-deployment-guide

NEW QUESTION 11
You are designing an Azure solution. The network traffic for the solution must be securely distributed by providing the following features:
– HTTPS protocol
– Round robin routing
– SSL offloading
You need to recommend a load balancing option. What should you recommend?

A.    Azure Load Balancer
B.    Azure Internal Load Balancer (ILB)
C.    Azure Traffic Manager
D.    Azure Application Gateway

Answer: D
Explanation:
If you are looking for Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol termination (“SSL offload”) or per-HTTP/HTTPS request, application-layer processing, review Application Gateway. Application Gateway is a layer 7 load balancer, which means it works only with web traffic (HTTP, HTTPS, WebSocket, and HTTP/2). It supports capabilities such as SSL termination, cookie-based session affinity, and round robin for load-balancing traffic. Load Balancer load-balances traffic at layer 4 (TCP or UDP).
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/application-gateway-faq

NEW QUESTION 12
You are developing a sales application that will contain several Azure cloud services and will handle different components of a transaction. Different cloud services will process customer orders, billing, payment, inventory, and shipping. You need to recommend a solution to enable the cloud services to asynchronously communicate transaction information by using REST messages. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Azure Service Bus
B.    Azure Blob Storage
C.    Azure Notification Hubs
D.    Azure Application Gateway

Answer: A
Explanation:
Service Bus is a transactional message broker and ensures transactional integrity for all internal operations against its message stores. All transfers of messages inside of Service Bus, such as moving messages to a dead-letter queue or automatic forwarding of messages between entities, are transactional.
Incorrect:
Not C: Azure Notification Hubs is a massively scalable mobile push notification engine for quickly sending millions of notifications to iOS, Android, Windows, or Kindle devices.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-messaging/service-bus-transactions

NEW QUESTION 13
……

NEW QUESTION 43
Hotspot
You are building an application that will run in a virtual machine (VM). The application will use Azure Managed Identity. The application uses Azure Key Vault, Azure SQL Database, and Azure Cosmos DB. You need to ensure the application can use secure credentials to access these services. Which authentication method should you recommend? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Managed identities for Azure resources is the new name for the service formerly known as Managed Service Identity (MSI).
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/managed-identities-azure-resources/overview

NEW QUESTION 44
Hotspot
You have an existing implementation of Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages stored in an SSISDB catalog on your on-premises network. The on-premises network does not have hybrid connectivity to Azure by using Site-to-Site VPN or ExpressRoute. You want to migrate the packages to Azure Data Factory. You need to recommend a solution that facilitates the migration while minimizing changes to the existing packages. The solution must minimize costs. What should you recommend? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Azure SQL database. You can’t create the SSISDB Catalog database on Azure SQL Database at this time independently of creating the Azure-SSIS Integration Runtime in Azure Data Factory. The Azure-SSIS IR is the runtime environment that runs SSIS packages on Azure.
Box 2: Azure-SQL Server Integration Service Integration Runtime and self-hosted integration runtime. The Integration Runtime (IR) is the compute infrastructure used by Azure Data Factory to provide data integration capabilities across different network environments. Azure-SSIS Integration Runtime (IR) in Azure Data Factory (ADF) supports running SSIS packages.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-factory/create-azure-integration-runtime
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/lift-shift/ssis-azure-connect-to-catalog-database

NEW QUESTION 45
Drag and Drop
You have an on-premises network that uses an IP address space of 172.16.0.0/16. You plan to deploy 25 virtual machines to a new Azure subscription. You identify the following technical requirements:
– All Azure virtual machines must be placed on the same subnet named Subnet1.
– All the Azure virtual machines must be able to communicate with all on-premises servers.
– The servers must be able to communicate between the on-premises network and Azure by using a site-to-site VPN.
You need to recommend a subnet design that meets the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, drag the appropriate network addresses to the correct subnets. Each network address may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 46
Drag and Drop
Your company has users who work remotely from laptops. You plan to move some of the applications accessed by the remote users to Azure virtual machines. The users will access the applications in Azure by using a point-to-site VPN connection. You will use certificates generated from an on-premises-based Certification authority (CA). You need to recommend which certificates are required for the deployment. What should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, drag the appropriate certificates to the correct targets. Each certificate may be used once, more than once, of not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 47
……

Case Study 1 – Fabrikam
Each office contains at least one domain controller from the corp.fabrikam.com domain. The main office contains all the domain controllers for the rd.fabrikam.com forest. All the offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. An existing application named WebApp1 is hosted in the data center of the London office. WebApp1 is used by customers to place and track orders. WebApp1 has a web tier that uses Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) and a database tier that runs Microsoft SQL Server 2016.
……

NEW QUESTION 81
What should you include in the identity management strategy to support the planned changes?

A.    Move all the domain controllers from corp.fabrikam.com to virtual networks in Azure.
B.    Deploy domain controllers for the rd.fabrikam.com forest to virtual networks in Azure.
C.    Deploy domain controllers for corp.fabrikam.com to virtual networks in Azure.
D.    Deploy a new Azure AD tenant for the authentication of new R&D projects.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 82
You need to recommend a notification solution for the IT Support distribution group. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    a SendGrid account with advanced reporting
B.    Azure AD Connect Health
C.    Azure Network Watcher
D.    an action group

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-health-operations

NEW QUESTION 83
……

Case Study 2 – Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso, Ltd, is a US-based financial services company that has a main office in New York and a branch office in San Francisco. Contoso hosts a business-critical payment processing system in its New York data center. The system has three tiers: a front-end web app, a middle-tier web API, and a back-end data store implemented as a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 database. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
……

NEW QUESTION 86
You need to recommend a solution for protecting the content of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Always Encrypted with deterministic encryption.
B.    Always Encrypted with randomized encryption.
C.    Transparent Data Encryption (TDE).
D.    Azure Storage Service Encryption.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 87
You need to recommend a backup solution for the data store of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Microsoft System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM)
B.    Azure Backup Server
C.    Azure SQL Long-term Backup Retention
D.    Azure Managed Disks

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-long-term-backup-retention-configure

NEW QUESTION 88
……

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NEW QUESTION 1
You are designing an Azure solution. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Distribute traffic to different pools of dedicated virtual machines (VMs) based on rules.
– Provide SSL offloading capabilities.
You need to recommend a solution to distribute network traffic. Which technology should you recommend?

A.    Azure Application Gateway
B.    Azure Load Balancer
C.    Azure Traffic Manager
D.    server-level firewall rules

Answer: A
Explanation:
If you require "SSL offloading", application layer treatment, or wish to delegate certificate management to Azure, you should use Azure’s layer 7 load balancer Application Gateway instead of the Load Balanacer.
Incorrect:
Not D: Because Load Balancer is agnostic to the TCP payload and TLS offload ("SSL") is not provided.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/overview

NEW QUESTION 2
You are implementing authentication for applications in your company. You plan to implement self-service password reset (SSPR) and multifactor authentication (MFA) in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You need to select authentication mechanisms that can be used for both MFA and SSPR. Which two authentication methods should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Authenticator app
B.    Email addresses
C.    App passwords
D.    Short Message Service (SMS) messages
E.    Security questions

Answer: AD
Explanation:
The following authentication mechanisms can be used for both MFA and SSPR:
– Short Message Service (SMS) messages
– Azure AD passwords
– Microsoft Authenticator app
– Voice call
Incorrect:
Not B and E: The following authentication mechanisms are used for SSPR only:
– Email addresses
– Security questions
C: App passwords authentication mechanisms can be used for MFA only, but only in certain cases.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-authentication-methods

NEW QUESTION 3
You have SQL Server on an Azure virtual machine named SQL1. You need to automate the backup of the databases on SQL1 by using Automated Backup v2 for the virtual machines. The backups must meet the following requirements:
– Meet a recovery point objective (RPO) of 15 minutes.
– Retain the backups for 30 days.
– Encrypt the backups at rest.
What should you provision as part of the backup solution?

A.    Elastic Database jobs
B.    Azure Key Vault
C.    an Azure Storage account
D.    a Recovery Services vault

Answer: C
Explanation:
An Azure storage account is used for storing Automated Backup files in blob storage. A container is created at this location to store all backup files. The backup file naming convention includes the date, time, and database GUID.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-sql/virtual-machines/windows/automated-backup

NEW QUESTION 4
You have resources in three Azure regions. Each region contains two virtual machines. Each virtual machine has a public IP address assigned to its network interface and a locally installed application named App1. You plan to implement Azure Front Door-based load balancing across all the virtual machines. You need to ensure that App1 on the virtual machines will only accept traffic routed from Azure Front Door. What should you implement?

A.    Azure Private Link
B.    service endpoints
C.    network security groups (NSGs) with service tags
D.    network security groups (NSGs) with application security groups

Answer: C
Explanation:
Configure IP ACLing for your backends to accept traffic from Azure Front Door’s backend IP address space and Azure’s infrastructure services only.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/frontdoor/front-door-faq

NEW QUESTION 5
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2019. Server1 is a container host. You are creating a Dockerfile to build a container image. You need to add a file named File1.txt from Server1 to a folder named C:\Folder1 in the container image.
Solution: You add the following line to the Dockerfile:
COPY File1.txt /Folder1/
You then build the container image.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Copy is the correct command to copy a file to the container image.
https://docs.docker.com/develop/develop-images/dockerfile_best-practices/#add-or-copy
https://docs.docker.com/engine/reference/builder/

NEW QUESTION 6
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. A user named Admin1 attempts to create an access review from the Azure Active Directory admin center and discovers that the Access reviews settings are unavailable. Admin1 discovers that all the other identity Governance settings are available. Admin1 is assigned the User administrator, Compliance administrator, and Security administrator roles. You need to ensure that Admin1 can create access reviews in contoso.com.
Solution: You assign the Global administrator role to Admin1.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead use Azure AD Privileged Identity Management. Note: PIM essentially helps you manage the who, what, when, where, and why for resources that you care about.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

NEW QUESTION 7
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You create several Azure virtual machines in Subscription1. All of the virtual machines belong to the same virtual network. You have an on-premises Hyper-V server named Server1. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. You plan to replicate VM1 to Azure. You need to create additional objects in Subscription1 to support the planned deployment. Which three objects should you create? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Hyper-V site
B.    Azure Recovery Services Vault
C.    storage account
D.    replication policy
E.    Azure Traffic Manager instance
F.    endpoint

Answer: ABD

NEW QUESTION 8
You create an Azure virtual machine named VM1 in a resource group named RG1. You discover that VM1 performs slower than expected. You need to capture a network trace on VM1. What should you do?

A.    From Diagnostic settings for VM1, configure the performance counters to include network counters.
B.    From the VM1 blade, configure Connection troubleshoot.
C.    From the VM1 blade, install performance diagnostics and run advanced performance analysis.
D.    From Diagnostic settings for VM1, configure the log level of the diagnostic agent.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/troubleshooting/performance-diagnostics

NEW QUESTION 9
A company plans to use third-party application software to perform complex data analysis processes. The software will use up to 500 identical virtual machines (VMs) based on an Azure Marketplace VM image. You need to design the infrastructure for the third-party application server. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– The number of VMs that are running at any given point in time must change when the user workload changes.
– When a new version of the application is available in Azure Marketplace it must be deployed without causing application downtime.
– Use VM scale sets.
– Minimize the need for ongoing maintenance.
Which two technologies should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    single storage account
B.    autoscale
C.    single placement group
D.    managed disks

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 10
You have a resource group named RG1 that contains the following:
– A virtual network that contains two subnets named Subnet1 and Subnet2
– An Azure Storage account named contososa1
– An Azure firewall deployed to Subnet2
You need to ensure that contososa1 is accessible from Subnet1 over the Azure backbone network. What should you do?

A.    Deploy an Azure firewall to Subnet1.
B.    Remove the Azure firewall.
C.    Implement a virtual network service endpoint.
D.    Create a stored access policy for contososa1.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Virtual Network (VNet) service endpoints extend your virtual network private address space and the identity of your VNet to the Azure services, over a direct connection. Endpoints allow you to secure your critical Azure service resources to only your virtual networks. Traffic from your VNet to the Azure service always remains on the Microsoft Azure backbone network.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-service-endpoints-overview

NEW QUESTION 11
A company is migrating an existing on-premises third-party website to Azure. The website is stateless. The company does not have access to the source code for the website. They have the original installer. The number of visitors at the website varies throughout the year. The on-premises infrastructure was resized to accommodate peaks but the extra capacity was not used. You need to implement a virtual machine scale set instance. What should you do?

A.    Use a webhook to log autoscale failures.
B.    Use an autoscale setting to scale instances vertically.
C.    Use only default diagnostics metrics to trigger autoscaling.
D.    Use an autoscale setting to define more profiles that have one or more autoscale rules.

Answer: C
Explanation:
In-guest VM metrics with the Azure diagnostics extension The Azure diagnostics extension is an agent that runs inside a VM instance. The agent monitors and saves performance metrics to Azure storage. These performance metrics contain more detailed information about the status of the VM, such as AverageReadTime for disks or PercentIdleTime for CPU. You can create autoscale rules based on a more detailed awareness of the VM performance, not just the percentage of CPU usage or memory consumption.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machine-scale-sets/virtual-machine-scale-sets-autoscale-overview

NEW QUESTION 12
You create a container image named Image1 on a developer workstation. You plan to create an Azure Web App for Containers named WebAppContainer that will use Image1. You need to upload Image1 to Azure. The solution must ensure that WebAppContainer can use Image1. To which storage type should you upload Image1?

A.    Azure Container Registry
B.    an Azure Storage account that contains a blob container
C.    an Azure Storage account that contains a file share
D.    Azure Container Instances

Answer: A
Explanation:
Configure registry credentials in web app. App Service needs information about your registry and image to pull the private image. In the Azure portal, go to Container settings from the web app and update the Image source, Registry and save.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/targets/webapp-on-container-linux

NEW QUESTION 13
A company’s development team is currently developing a Docker/Go based application. The application needs to be deployed to the Azure Web App service using containers on the Linux platform. Currently there are no resource groups in place in the company’s Azure account that supports the Linux platform. You must advise on the necessary and minimum number of steps to provide the ability to host the application in the company’s Azure account. Which of the following Azure CLI commands would you recommend implementing for this requirement? (Choose three.)

A.    az group update
B.    az webapp update
C.    az group create
D.    az appservice plan create
E.    az webapp create

Answer: CDE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/containers/quickstart-docker-go

NEW QUESTION 14
A company has an on-premise setup and a setup defined in Azure. They have gone ahead and created an Azure Logic App named lead2pass-app. They need this app to query an on-premise SQL database server. Which of the following steps need to be performed to fulfil this requirement? (Choose three.)

A.    Create a Virtual Machine in Azure.
B.    Install the On-premise data gateway on the Azure Virtual Machine.
C.    From the Azure portal, create an on-premise data gateway.
D.    On a computer in the on-premise network, install an on-premise data gateway.
E.    From the Logic App Designer, add a connector.

Answer: CDE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-gateway-connection

NEW QUESTION 15
Your company needs to migrate a Virtual Machine, lead2pass-vm, hosted in Amazon Web Services to Azure using Azure Site Recovery. The following resources have been created for the implementation:
– A Virtual Network in Azure
– A Replication Policy
– A Recovery Services vault
– An Azure storage account
Which of the following steps would you carry out for the migration? (Choose three.)

A.    Install Azure Site Recovery Unified Setup.
B.    Enable Windows Powershell remoting on whizlabs-vm.
C.    Enable replication for whizlabs-vm.
D.    Create an Azure Migrate project.
E.    Deploy another server in Amazon Web Services as the configuration server.

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/migrate-tutorial-aws-azure

NEW QUESTION 16
A company wants to sync their on-premise AD with Azure AD. They have setup Azure AD connect and configured the setup for Password hash synchronization, Single Sign-On and staging mode is also enabled. After an initial review it can be seen that the Synchronization Service Manager is not displaying any sync jobs. Which of the following step would need to be carried out to resolve this issue?

A.    Be sure to configure, Azure AD for Pass-through Authentication.
B.    Run a full import using the Service Manager.
C.    From Azure AD Connect, ensure to disable staging mode.
D.    Run a full import from the local on-premise AD.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-sync-staging-server

NEW QUESTION 17
A company has a number of VMWare Virtual Machines that need to be migrated onto Azure. You first have to discover and assess the virtual machines for the migration. Which of the following steps would you implement for this requirement? (Choose four.)

A.    From the Azure Portal, download the OVA file.
B.    Create a collector virtual Machine.
C.    From the Azure Portal, download the Azure Site Recovery agent.
D.    Configure the collector to start the discovery.
E.    Create an assessment.
F.    Create a backup policy.

Answer: ABDE
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/migrate/tutorial-assessment-vmware

NEW QUESTION 18
A company has a web application named lead2pass-app deployed to Azure. The Web App is deployed using the Azure App Service based on the D1 pricing tier. The application is now being modified and needs to accept connections on HTTPS. You have to ensure that the cost is minimized for any changes made. Which of the following needs to be done to ensure this requirement can be fulfilled?

A.    Scale out the App Service Plan
B.    Scale up the App Service Plan
C.    Change the properties of the Web App
D.    Change the Quota of the Web App

Answer: B
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect since this option is used for Autoscaling purpose. Options C and D are incorrect since these are read-only features.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/app-service/plans/

NEW QUESTION 19
Hotspot
Your company has an Azure Container Registry named Registry1. You have an Azure virtual machine named Serverl that runs Windows Server 2019. From Serverl, you create a container image named image1. You need to add image1 to Registry1. Which command should you run on Server1? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
An Azure container registry stores and manages private Docker container images, similar to the way Docker Hub stores public Docker images. You can use the Docker command-line interface (Docker CLI) for login, push, pull, and other operations on your container registry.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/container-registry/container-registry-get-started-docker-cli
https://docs.docker.com/engine/reference/commandline/push/

NEW QUESTION 20
Drag and Drop
You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources shown in the following table:

In RG2, you need to create a new virtual machine named VM2 that will connect to VNET1. VM2 will use a network interface named VM2_Interface. In which region should you create VM2 and VM2_Interface? (To answer, drag the appropriate regions to the correct targets. Each region may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)

Answer:

Explanation:
VM2: West US. In RG2, which is in West US, you need to create a new virtual machine named VM2.
VM2_interface: East US. VM2 will use a network interface named VM2_Interface to connect to VNET1, which is in East US.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/associate-public-ip-address-vm

NEW QUESTION 21
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NEW QUESTION 201
You have two conditional access policies named Policy1 and Policy2. Policy1 has the following settings:
1. Assignments:
– Users and groups: User1
– Cloud apps or actions: Office 365 Exchange Online
– Conditions: 0 conditions selected
2. Access controls:
– Grant: Grant access
– Session: 0 controls selected
– Enable policy: On
Policy2 has the following settings:
1. Assignments:
– Users and groups: User1
– Cloud apps or actions: Office 365 Exchange Online
– Conditions: 0 conditions selected
2. Access controls:
– Grant: Block access
– Session: 0 controls selected
– Enable policy: On
You need to ensure that User1 can access Microsoft Exchange Online only from devices that are marked as compliant. What should you do?

A.    Modify the Grant settings of Policy2.
B.    Disable Policy2.
C.    Modify the Conditions settings of Policy2.
D.    Modify the Grant settings of Policy1.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 202
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that uses an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. You need to ensure that users can enroll devices in Microsoft Endpoint Manager without manually entering the address of Microsoft Endpoint Manager. Which two DNS records should you create? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    a CNAME record for AutoDiscover.contoso.com
B.    a CNAME record for EnterpriseEnrollment.contoso.com
C.    a TXT record for EnterpriseRegistration.contoso.com
D.    an SRV record for _SIP._TLS.contoso.com
E.    an SRV record for _SIPfederationTLS.contoso.com
F.    a CNAME record for EnterpriseRegistration.contoso.com
G.    a TXT record for EnterpriseEnrollment.contoso.com

Answer: BF
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/mem/intune/enrollment/windows-enroll#simplify-windows-enrollment-without-azure-ad-premium

NEW QUESTION 203
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains 500 users. You have several hundred computers that run the 64-bit version of Windows 10 Enterprise and have the following configurations:
– Two volumes that contain data
– A CPU that has two cores
– TPM disabled
– 4 GB of RAM
All the computers are managed by using Microsoft Intune. You need to ensure that you can turn on Windows Defender Application Guard on the computers. What should you do first?

A.    Modify the edition of Windows 10.
B.    Create an additional volume.
C.    Replace the CPU and enable TPM.
D.    Replace the CPU and increase the RAM.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The computers need 4 CPU cores and 8GB of RAM.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-application-guard/reqs-wd-app-guard

NEW QUESTION 204
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that uses Microsoft Defender Advanced Threat Protection (Microsoft Defender ATP). From Microsoft Defender ATP, you turn on the allow or block file advanced feature. You need to block users from downloading a file named File1.exe. What should you use?

A.    a suppression rule
B.    an indicator
C.    a device configuration profile

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/microsoft-defender-atp/respond-file-alerts#allow-or-block-file

NEW QUESTION 205
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain named contoso.com. You have two users named User1 and User2. From the Security & Compliance admin center, you add User1 to the eDiscovery Manager role group. From the Security & Compliance admin center, User1 creates a case named Case1. You need to ensure that User1 can add User2 as a case member. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. To which role group should you add User2?

A.    eDiscovery Manager
B.    eDiscovery Administrator
C.    Security Administrator

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/add-or-remove-members-from-a-case-in-advanced-ediscovery?view=o365-worldwide

NEW QUESTION 206
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. You sign for Microsoft Store for Business. The tenant contains the users shown in the following table:

Microsoft Store for Business has the following Shopping behavior settings:
– Allow users to shop is set to On.
– Make everyone a Basic Purchaser is set to Off.
You need to identify which users can install apps from the Microsoft for Business private store. Which users should you identify?

A.    User1 and User2.
B.    User1 only.
C.    User1, User2, User3, and User4.
D.    User3 and User4.
E.    User1, User2, User3, User4, and User5.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Allow users to shop controls the shopping experience in Microsoft Store for Education. When this setting is on, Purchasers and Basic Purchasers can purchase products and services from Microsoft Store for Education.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-store/acquire-apps-microsoft-store-for-business

NEW QUESTION 207
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. The tenant contains the users shown in the following table:

You create and assign a data loss prevention (DLP) policy named Policy1. Policy1 is configured to prevent documents that contain Personally Identifiable Information (PII) from being emailed to users outside your organization. To which users can User1 send documents that contain PII?

A.    User2 only.
B.    User2 and User3.
C.    User2, User3, and User4.
D.    User2, User3, User4, and User5.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Guest accounts are considered “outside your organization”. Users who have non-guest accounts in a host organization’s Active Directory or Azure Active Directory tenant are considered as people inside the organization.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/data-loss-prevention-policies?view=o365-worldwide

NEW QUESTION 208
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses Security & Compliance retention policies. You implement a preservation lock on a retention policy that is assigned to all executive users. Which two actions can you perform on the retention policy? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Add locations to the policy.
B.    Reduce the duration of policy.
C.    Remove locations from the policy.
D.    Extend the duration of the policy.
E.    Disable the policy.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 209
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. Your company has a customer ID associated to each customer. The customer IDs contain 10 numbers followed by 10 characters. The following is a sample customer ID: 12-456-7890-abc-de-fghij. You plan to create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that will detect messages containing customer IDs. What should you create to ensure that the DLP policy can detect the customer IDs?

A.    a sensitive information type
B.    a sensitivity label
C.    a supervision policy
D.    a retention label

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/custom-sensitive-info-types?view=o365-worldwide

NEW QUESTION 210
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains a user named User1. You need to ensure that User1 can search the Microsoft 365 audit logs from the Security & Compliance admin center. Which role should you assign to User1?

A.    View-Only Audit Logs in the Security & Compliance admin center.
B.    View-Only Audit Logs in the Exchange admin center.
C.    Security Reader in the Azure Active Directory admin center.
D.    Security Reader in the Security & Compliance admin center.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-and-compliance?view=o365-worldwide

NEW QUESTION 211
Hotspot
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains the users shown in the following table:

You run the following cmdlet:
Set-MailboxAuditBypassAssociation –Identity User2 -AuditByPassEnabled $true
The users perform the following actions:
– User1 accesses an item in the mailbox of User2.
– User2 modifies a mailbox item in the mailbox of User3.
– User3 signs in to her mailbox.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

Answer:

Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/set-mailboxauditbypassassociation?view=exchange-ps

NEW QUESTION 212
Hotspot
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. Your network uses an IP address space of 51.40.15.0/24. An Exchange Online administrator recently created a role named Role1 from a computer on the network. You need to identify the name of the administrator by using an audit log search. For which activities should you search and by which field should you filter in the audit log search? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 213
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NEW QUESTION 225
A company named Contoso, Ltd. has an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that is integrated with Microsoft Office 365 and an Azure subscription. Contoso has an on-premises identity infrastructure. The infrastructure includes servers that run Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS), Azure AD Connect, and Microsoft Identity Manager (MIM). Contoso has a partnership with a company named Fabrikam, Inc. Fabrikam has an Active Directory forest and an Office 365 tenant. Fabrikam has the same on-premises identity infrastructure as Contoso. A team of 10 developers from Fabrikam will work on an Azure solution that will be hosted in the Azure subscription of Contoso. The developers must be added to the Contributor role for a resource in the Contoso subscription. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that Contoso can assign the role to the 10 Fabrikam developers. The solution must ensure that the Fabrikam developers use their existing credentials to access resources. What should you recommend?

A.    Configure an AD FS relying party trust between the Fabrikam and Contoso AD FS infrastructures.
B.    Configure an organization relationship between the Office 365 tenants of Fabrikam and Contoso.
C.    In the Azure AD tenant of Contoso, create guest accounts for the Fabrikam developers.
D.    Configure a forest trust between the on-premises Active Directory forests of Contoso and Fabrikam.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Trust configurations – configure trust from managed forests(s) or domain(s) to the administrative forest A one-way trust is required from production environment to the admin forest. Selective authentication should be used to restrict accounts in the admin forest to only logging on to the appropriate production hosts.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/identity/securing-privileged-access/securing-privileged-access-reference-material

NEW QUESTION 226
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that has a security group named Group1. Group1 is configured for assigned membership. Group1 has 50 members, including 20 guest users. You need to recommend a solution for evaluating the membership of Group1. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– The evaluation must be repeated automatically every three months.
– Every member must be able to report whether they need to be in Group1.
– Users who report that they do not need to be in Group1 must be removed from Group1 automatically.
– Users who do not report whether they need to be in Group1 must be removed from Group1 automatically.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Implement Azure AD Identity Protection.
B.    Change the Membership type of Group1 to Dynamic User.
C.    Create an access review.
D.    Implement Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.

Answer: B
Explanation:
In Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), you can create complex attribute-based rules to enable dynamic memberships for groups. Dynamic group membership reduces the administrative overhead of adding and removing users. When any attributes of a user or device change, the system evaluates all dynamic group rules in a directory to see if the change would trigger any group adds or removes. If a user or device satisfies a rule on a group, they are added as a member of that group. If they no longer satisfy the rule, they are removed.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/users-groups-roles/groups-dynamic-membership

NEW QUESTION 227
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Cosmos DB account. You need to recommend a solution to generate an alert from Azure Log Analytics when a request charge for a query exceeds 50 request units more than 20 times within a 15-minute window. What should you recommend?

A.    Create a search query to identify when requestCharge_s exceeds 50.
Configure an alert threshold of 20 and a period of 15.
B.    Create a search query to identify when duration_s exceeds 20 and requestCharge_s exceeds 50.
Configure a period of 15.
C.    Create a search query to identify when requestCharge_s exceeds 20.
Configure a period of 15 and a frequency of 20.
D.    Create a search query to identify when duration_s exceeds 20.
Configure a period of 15.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 228
You have 70 TB of files on your on-premises file server. You need to recommend solution for importing data to Azure. The solution must minimize cost. What Azure service should you recommend?

A.    Azure StorSimple
B.    Azure Stack
C.    Azure Data Box
D.    Azure Batch

Answer: C
Explanation:
Microsoft has engineered an extremely powerful solution that helps customers get their data to the Azure public cloud in a cost-effective, secure, and efficient manner with powerful Azure and machine learning at play. The solution is called Data Box. Data Box and is in general availability status. It is a rugged device that allows organizations to have 100 TB of capacity on which to copy their data and then send it to be transferred to Azure.
Incorrect:
Not A: StoreSimple would not be able to handle 70 TB of data.
https://www.vembu.com/blog/what-is-microsoft-azure-data-box-disk-edge-heavy-gateway-overview/

NEW QUESTION 229
You have an Azure subscription. Your on-premises network contains a file server named Server1. Server1 stores 5 TB of company files that are accessed rarely. You plan to copy the files to Azure Storage. You need to implement a storage solution for the files that meets the following requirements:
– The files must be available within 24 hours of being requested.
– Storage costs must be minimized.
Which two possible storage solutions achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Create a general-purpose v2 storage account that is set to the Cool access tier.
Create a file share in the storage account and copy the files to the file share.
B.    Create a general-purpose v2 storage account that is set to the Host access tier.
Create a blob container, copy the files to the blob container, and set each file to the Archive access tier.
C.    Create a general-purpose v1 storage account.
Create a file share in the storage account and copy the files to the file share.
D.    Create an Azure Blob storage account that is set to the Cool access tier.
Create a blob container, copy the files to the blob container, and set each file to the Archive access tier.
E.    Create a general-purpose v1 storage account.
Create a blob container and copy the files to the blob container.

Answer: AE
Explanation:
A: Azure storage offers different access tiers, which allow you to store blob object data in the most cost- effective manner. The Cool access tier is optimized for storing data that is infrequently accessed and stored for at least 30 days.
E: Using a file share is cheaper than using a blob container.
Incorrect:
Not B, D: The Archive tier is optimized for storing data that is rarely accessed and stored for at least 180 days with flexible latency requirements (on the order of hours).
Not C: Using a Blob container would be cheaper than using a file share.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-storage-tiers

NEW QUESTION 230
You have an on-premises Hyper-V clusters that hosts 20 virtual machines. Some virtual machines run Windows Server 2016 and some run Linux. You plan to migrate the virtual machines to an Azure subscription. You need to recommend a solution to replicate the disks of the virtual machines to Azure. The solution must ensure that the virtual machines remain available during the migration of the disks.
Solution: You recommend implementing an Azure Storage account that has a file service and a blob service, and then using the Data Migration Assistant.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Data Migration Assistant is used to migrate SQL databases. Instead use Azure Site Recovery.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-overview

NEW QUESTION 231
You have an on-premises Hyper-V clustern that hosts 20 virtual machines. Some virtual machines run Windows Server 2016 and some run Linux. You plan to migrate the virtual machines to an Azure subscription. You need to recommend a solution to replicate the disks of the virtual machines to Azure. The solution must ensure that the virtual machines remain available during the migration of the disks.
Solution: You recommend implementing a Recovery Services vault, and then using Azure Site Recovery.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Site Recovery can replicate on-premises VMware VMs, Hyper-V VMs, physical servers (Windows and Linux), Azure Stack VMs to Azure.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-overview

NEW QUESTION 232
You are designing an Azure web app. You need to ensure that users who have impaired vision can use the app. Which reference material should you use when designing the app?

A.    Accessibility in Windows Dev Center
B.    Azure Application Architecture Guide
C.    Web Content Accessibility Guidelines
D.    Cloud Application Architecture Guide

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/trust-center/compliance/accessibility

NEW QUESTION 233
You manage an Azure environment for a company. The environment has over 25,000 licensed users and 100 mission-critical applications. You need to recommend a solution that provides advanced endpoint threat detection and remediation strategies. What should you recommend?

A.    Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Authentication
B.    Microsoft Identity Manager
C.    Azure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
D.    Azure Active Directory (AZ AD) Connect
E.    Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Identity Protection

Answer: E
Explanation:
Identity Protection uses adaptive machine learning algorithms and heuristics to detect anomalies and risk detections that might indicate that an identity has been compromised. Using this data, Identity Protection generates reports and alerts so that you can investigate these risk detections and take appropriate remediation or mitigation action.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/threat-detection

NEW QUESTION 234
You have an Azure Storage account that contains two 1-GB data files named File1 and File2. The data files are set to use the archive access tier. You need to ensure that File1 is accessible immediately when a retrieval request is initiated.
Solution: You move File1 to a new storage account. For File1, you set Access tier to Archive.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead use the hot access tier. The hot access tier has higher storage costs than cool and archive tiers, but the lowest access costs.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-storage-tiers

NEW QUESTION 235
You have an Azure Storage account that contains two 1-GB data files named File1 and File2. The data files are set to use the archive access tier. You need to ensure that File1 is accessible immediately when a retrieval request is initiated.
Solution: For File1, you set Access tier to Hot.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
The hot access tier has higher storage costs than cool and archive tiers, but the lowest access costs.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-storage-tiers

NEW QUESTION 236
You have an application named App1. App1 generates log files that must be archived for five years. The log files must be readable by App1 but must not be modified. Which storage solution should you recommend for archiving?

A.    Use an Azure Blob storage account and a time-based retention policy.
B.    Ingest the log files into an Azure Log Analytics workspace.
C.    Use an Azure Blob storage account configured to use the Archive access tier.
D.    Use an Azure file share that has access control enabled.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutable-storage

NEW QUESTION 237
You plan to archive 10 TB of on-premises data files to Azure. You need to recommend a data archival solution. The solution must minimize the cost of storing the data files. Which Azure Storage account type should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Premium Storage (general purpose v1)
B.    Standard StorageV2 (general purpose v2)
C.    Standard Storage (general purpose v1)
D.    Premium StorageV2 (general purpose v2)

Answer: B
Explanation:
Standard StorageV2 supports the Archive access tier, which would be the cheapest solution.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-introduction

NEW QUESTION 238
You are developing a sales application that will contain several Azure cloud services and will handle different components of a transaction. Different cloud services will process customer orders, billing, payment, inventory, and shipping. You need to recommend a solution to enable the cloud services to asynchronously communicate transaction information by using REST messages. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Azure Data Lake
B.    Azure Service Fabric
C.    Azure Service Bus
D.    Azure Notification Hubs

Answer: C
Explanation:
Service Bus is a transactional message broker and ensures transactional integrity for all internal operations against its message stores. All transfers of messages inside of Service Bus, such as moving messages to a dead-letter queue or automatic forwarding of messages between entities, are transactional.
Incorrect:
Not D: Azure Notification Hubs is a massively scalable mobile push notification engine for quickly sending millions of notifications to iOS, Android, Windows, or Kindle devices.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-messaging/service-bus-transactions

NEW QUESTION 239
Hotspot
You have an on-premises file server that stores 2 TB of data files. You plan to move the data files to Azure Blob storage in the Central Europe region. You need to recommend a storage account type to store the data files and a replication solution for the storage account. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Be available if a single Azure datacenter fails.
– Support storage tiers.
– Minimize cost.
What should you recommend? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
https://cloud.netapp.com/blog/storage-tiers-in-azure-blob-storage-find-the-best-for-your-data
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy

NEW QUESTION 240
Hotspot
Your on-premises network contains a file server named Server1 that stores 500 GB of data. You need to use Azure Data Factory to copy the data from Server1 to Azure Storage. You add a new data factory. What should you do next? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

Answer:

Explanation:
Box 1: Install a self-hosted integration runtime. The Integration Runtime is a customer-managed data integration infrastructure used by Azure Data Factory to provide data integration capabilities across different network environments.
Box 2: Create a pipeline. With ADF, existing data processing services can be composed into data pipelines that are highly available and managed in the cloud. These data pipelines can be scheduled to ingest, prepare, transform, analyze, and publish data, and ADF manages and orchestrates the complex data and processing dependencies.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/team-data-science-process/move-sql-azure-adf

NEW QUESTION 241
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NEW QUESTION 226
Which purpose does a northbound API server in a controller-based networking architecture?

A.    Communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware.
B.    Reports device errors to a controller.
C.    Generates statistics for network hardware and traffic.
D.    Facilitates communication between the controller and the applications.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://searchnetworking.techtarget.com/feature/A-primer-on-northbound-APIs-Their-role-in-a-software-defined-network

NEW QUESTION 227
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

A.    Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options.
B.    Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management.
C.    Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management.
D.    Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/dna-center/nb-06-dna-center-so-cte-en.html

NEW QUESTION 228
What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (Choose two.)

A.    It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.
B.    It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network.
C.    The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic.
D.    It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network.
E.    It requires that some servers, virtual machines, and network gear reside on the Internet.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtualization

NEW QUESTION 229
What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

A.    It supports numerous extensibility options, including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.
B.    It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements in a brownfield deployment.
C.    It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.
D.    It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/dna-center/nb-06-dna-center-so-cte-en.html

NEW QUESTION 230
Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?

A.    2000::/3
B.    FC00::/7
C.    FE80::/10
D.    FF00::/8

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.iana.org/assignments/ipv6-address-space/ipv6-address-space.xhtml

NEW QUESTION 231
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

A.    The seventh bit of original MAC address of the interface is inverted.
B.    The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value.
C.    The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface.
D.    The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-documents/understanding-ipv6-eui-64-bit-address/ta-p/3116953

NEW QUESTION 232
What is the difference regrading reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

A.    TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
B.    TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol.
C.    TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol.
D.    TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.privateinternetaccess.com/blog/tcp-vs-udp-understanding-the-difference/

NEW QUESTION 233
Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1, which configuration accomplishes this task?

A.    R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip route default-route 192.168.1.1
B.    R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1
C.    R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip route 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
D.    R1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 234
Which function dose the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

A.    Allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts.
B.    Provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network.
C.    Ensues that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing.
D.    Enable secure communications to the internet for all external hosts.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://kb.iu.edu/d/aijr

NEW QUESTION 235
A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network, which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?

A.    Device(config)# lldp run
B.    Device(config)# cdp run
C.    Device(config)# cdp enable
D.    Device(config)# flow-sampler-map topology

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/cether/configuration/guide/ce_lldp-med.html

NEW QUESTION 236
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

A.    TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data; UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.
B.    TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once; UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing.
C.    TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake.
D.    TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data; UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.privateinternetaccess.com/blog/tcp-vs-udp-understanding-the-difference/

NEW QUESTION 237
Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?

A.    ntp master
B.    ntp sever
C.    ntp authenticate
D.    ntp peer

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/system_management/configuration/guide/sm_nx_os_cg/sm_3ntp.html

NEW QUESTION 238
Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two.)

A.    IPv6 address
B.    OSPF process ID
C.    OSPF MD5 authentication key
D.    OSPF stub flag
E.    OSPF area

Answer: BE
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_ospf/configuration/xe-2/iro-xe-2-book/iro-mode-ospfv2.html

NEW QUESTION 239
What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two.)

A.    The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.
B.    The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them.
C.    The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses.
D.    The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses.
E.    The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

Answer: DE
Explanation:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Host_Configuration_Protocol

NEW QUESTION 240
What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?

A.    FlexConnect AP mode fails to function if the AP loses connectivity with the WLC.
B.    FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured.
C.    Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AF to the WLC.
D.    Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-and-mobility/what-s-the-difference-between-local-mode-and-flex-connect-mode/td-p/2532657

NEW QUESTION 241
By default, how does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

A.    It uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric.
B.    It uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router.
C.    It counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric.
D.    It uses a reference bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.practicalnetworking.net/stand-alone/eigrp-metric/

NEW QUESTION 242
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

A.    Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.
B.    Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table.
C.    Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port.
D.    Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 243
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)

A.    5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels.
B.    5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.
C.    Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels.
D.    Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.
E.    For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 244
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two.)

A.    A BNC connector is used for fiber connections.
B.    The glass core component is encased in a cladding.
C.    The data can pass through the cladding.
D.    Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber.
E.    Fiber connects to physical interfaces using RJ-45 connections.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 245
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two.)

A.    The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies.
B.    The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.
C.    The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains.
D.    The core layer maintains wired connections for each host.
E.    The core and distribution layers perform the same functions.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 246
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

A.    Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.
B.    It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.
C.    It provides variable latency.
D.    Each device is separated by the same number of hops.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 247
How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services, and access control?

A.    Authorization provides access control, and authentication tracks user services.
B.    Authentication identifies users, and accounting tracks user services.
C.    Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control.
D.    Authorization identifies users, and authentication provides access control.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 248
Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

A.    It sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS.
B.    It manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network.
C.    It coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server.
D.    It requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 249
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of attack that they mitigate on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 250
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

Answer:

NEW QUESTION 251
……

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