CCNA PASS

CCNA4 FINAL (New 1)

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 09:45:00 +0000

1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates a digital local loop.
A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
CIR
DE
• DLCI
ISDN
FRAD
PVC

3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
The IP addresses must be on different subnets.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
The clock rate must be 56000.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
• There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
There is no clock present on the serial interface.
The interface is shut down.
RARP is not functioning on the router.
• The cable is disconnected.

5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)
• The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
• The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.
• The point is called the demarcation point.
The point is typically located at the service provider's central office.
The point is located between the customer's local area networks.

6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?
show interfaces serial 0/0
show version
• show controllers serial 0/0
show protocols serial 0/0
show status serial 0/0

7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP server service is not enabled.
The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
• The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.
• All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.
An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.

9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used? (Choose two.)
when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
• when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
• when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2
RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast

11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
• ITU-T Q.921
ITU-T Q.931
ITU-T I.430
ITU-T I.431

12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
create a full-mesh topology
disable Inverse ARP
use point-to-point subinterfaces
use multipoint subinterfaces
remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command

13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
• defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.
What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
Add a clock rate on RouterA.
Enable the serial interface on RouterB.
• Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.
Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.

15. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
remove the dialer list statement from the configuration
• change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
disable inverse ARP

16. Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?
1 - dial number is looked up
2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 - route to destination is determined
4 - call is made
1,2,3,4
1,3,2,4
2,3,1,4
2,1,3,4
• 3,2,1,4
3,1,2,4

17. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
NAT with DHCP
Frame Relay
HDLC with encryption
HDLC with CHAP
PPP with PAP
• PPP with CHAP

18. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration? (Choose two.)
create subinterfaces
define the LMI type
set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch
set the interface DLCI
set the switch type
specify the encapsulation as either Cisco or IETF

19. A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?
use PPP multilink
lower idle timer setting
use CHAP authentication
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

20. A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
• PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.
The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.

21. Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the workstation with the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.
The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
• The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.
The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.
The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.

22. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue will prevent IP traffic from crossing this link?
The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
The usernames are misconfigured.
The clock rate must be 56000.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• The IP addresses must be on the same subnet.
Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

23. What causes a DDR call to be placed?
dial string
DLCI
idle time out
• interesting traffic
PVC

24. Which two layers of the OSI model are described by WAN standards?
Application Layer, Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer, Physical Layer
Data Link Layer, Transport Layer
Physical Layer, Network Layer

25. A technician is testing RouterA in the graphic. What is the condition of the circuit?
The routers are configured for different encapsulations.
• The clock rate is not properly configured on the routers.
The circuit from WAN provider has failed.
Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.
The circuit is functioning properly.

26. A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between a central office and three remote sites: Orlando, Atlanta, and Phoenix. The Orlando and Atlanta remote offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Phoenix remote office consists of one salesperson traveling through the southwest territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect the remote sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with Frame Relay connections.
Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with ISDN connections.
Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with POTS dial-up connections.
Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a Frame Relay connection.
• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.

27. When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)
• Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.
Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.
Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.
The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.

28. A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?
There is not a route to the remote router.
The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.
• The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.
The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.

29. What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.
172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.
DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.
broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.
• dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.
active indicates that the ARP process is working.

30. What does the status inactive indicate in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but is not usable.
The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.
The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
The DLCI has been renamed for that PVC.

31. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29

32. After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)
PPP authentication is not properly configured.
• No dialer map is configured.
The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.
• No interesting traffic is defined.
No route is determined to the remote network.
• A wrong number is configured in the dial string.

33. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay, point-to-point PVC. The remote router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco router and the other router?
frame-relay pvc multipoint
frame-relay pvc point-to-point
encapsulation frame-relay cisco
• encapsulation frame-relay ietf
frame-relay lmi-type ansi

34. Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?
X.25
DSL
ISDN
cable modem

35. After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?
show dialer
show isdn status
• show interfaces bri0/0:1
show interfaces serial0/0.1

36. A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?
Install and configure a PRI.
Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.
Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.
• Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.
Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.

37. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
• Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure dynamic NAT with PAT.
Configure DHCP and static NAT.
What the administrator wants to do cannot be done.

38. Which of the following are characteristics of Frame Relay? (Choose two.)
circuit-switched
• connection oriented
OSI Layer 3
• packet-switched
reliable

39. Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?
authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols
authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment
network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication
network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment
• link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols
link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication

CCNA 3:Module 1

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 09:42:00 +0000

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.)
forwarding rate
traffic flow analysis
expected future growth
number of required core connections
number of hubs that are needed in the access layer to increase performance

2. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model?
Layer 1
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5

3. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network?
Local analog phone service can be completely outsourced to cost-effective providers.
The Ethernet VLAN structure is less complex.
A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage.
QoS issues are greatly reduced.
There is less bandwidth competition between voice and video streams

4. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?
application
access
distribution
network
core

5. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)
port security
security policies
10 Gigabit Ethernet
quality of service (QoS)
hot-swappable hardware
Power over Ethernet (PoE)

6. Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
security policies
Power over Ethernet
switch port security
quality of service
Layer 3 functionality
end user access to network

7. Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.)
Power over Ethernet
load balancing across redundant trunk links
redundant components
Quality of Service
link aggregation

8. Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.)
low port density
high forwarding rate
high latency level
support link aggregation
predefined number of ports

9. Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?
core only
distribution and core
access and distribution
access, distribution, and core

10. For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network?
Power over Ethernet
quality of service
switch port security
inter-VLAN routing

11. Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network?
application
access
distribution
network
core

12. At which heirarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed?
core layer
distribution layer
access layer
entry layer

13. Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision?
Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4

14. Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2?
scalability
security
redundancy
maintainability

15. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical?
access layer
core layer
data-link layer
distribution layer
network layer
physical layer

16. What statement best describes a modular switch?
a slim-line chassis
allows interconnection of switches on redundant backplane
defined physical characteristics
flexible characteristics

17. A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches. Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology?
StackWise technology allows up to eight ports to be bound together to increase available bandwidth.
StackWise technology allows the switch to deliver power to end devices by using existing Ethernet cabling.
StackWise technology allows the switch capabilities and ports to be expanded by the addition of line cards.
StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane.

18. Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure?
PoE
redundancy
aggregation
access lists

19. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?
convergence
redundant links
link aggregation
network diameter

20. Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles?
Implement Layer 3 switching on S1 to reduce the packet processing load on D1 and D2. Install all security processing on S1 to reduce network traffic load.
Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.
Move all HR assets out of the data center and connect them to S1. Use Layer 3 security functions on S1 to deny all traffic into and out of S1.
Perform all port access and Layer 3 security functions on C1.

CCNA 3:Module 2

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 09:41:00 +0000

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?
The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame.
The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.
The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.

2. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?
1
2
4
6
7
8

3. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?
SW1 drops the frame.
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.
SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2.

4. If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what will be the result?

Switch1(config-line)# line console 0

Switch1(config-line)# password cisco

Switch1(config-line)# login
to secure the console port with the password "cisco"
to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available
to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password
to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access

5. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with "% Incomplete command". The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information?
append ? to the last parameter
append a space and then ? to the last parameter
use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list
use the Tab key to show which options are available

6. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
workstation C
workstations B and C
workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router
workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router

7. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)
The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.

8. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is "cisco." What can be determined from the output shown?
The enable password is encrypted by default.
An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.
Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.
This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.

9. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks? (Choose two.)
Enable CDP on the switch.
Change passwords regularly.
Turn off unnecessary services.
Enable the HTTP server on the switch.
Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
No collisions will occur on this link.
Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

11. Where is the startup configuration stored?
DRAM
NVRAM
ROM
startup-config.text

12. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down.
Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent.
Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config.
Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.

13. Which statement is true about the command banner login "Authorized personnel Only" issued on a switch?
The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode.
The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.
The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: "banner motd" ” to be displayed.
The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator’s attempts to connect to Switch1 via Secure Shell are failing. What is most likely the problem?
incorrect vty lines configured
incompatible Secure Shell version
incorrect default gateway address
vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet

15. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch.
The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.

16. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts.
Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks.
Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains.
Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A?
hosts A and B
hosts B and C
hosts D and E
hosts A, B, and C
hosts B, C, D, and E
hosts A, B, C, D, E, and F

18. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?
user EXEC mode
privileged EXEC mode
global configuration mode
interface configuration mode

19. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.)
The enable secret password command stores the configured password in plain text.
The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.
The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.
The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password.
Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously.

20. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

CCNA 3:Module 3

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 09:40:00 +0000

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true?
802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
802.1q does NOT require the FCS of the original frame to be recalculated.
802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.

2. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)
VLANs improve network performance by regulating flow control and window size.
VLANs enable switches to route packets to remote networks via VLAN ID filtering.
VLANs reduce network cost by reducing the number of physical ports required on switches.
VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications.
VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms.

3. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.)
VLAN1 should renamed.
VLAN 1 is the management VLAN.
All switch ports are members of VLAN1.
Only switch port 0/1 is assigned to VLAN1.
Links between switches must be members of VLAN1.

4. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the topology shown in the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured with trunk mode “on”. Which statement is true about forming a trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2?
Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP.
Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 can only become a trunk link if statically configured as a trunk.
Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link if the neighboring interface is configured in nonegotiate mode.
Interface Fa0/1 converts the neighboring link on the adjacent switch into a trunk link automatically with no consideration of the configuration on the neighboring interface.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
A
A, B
A, B, D, G
A, D, F
C, E
C, E, F

6. The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLANs numbered 20 and 30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
The VLANs may be named.
VLAN information is saved in the startup configuration.
Non-default VLANs created manually must use the extended range VLAN numbers.
The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mode or VLAN database mode.
Both VLANs may be named BUILDING_A to distinguish them from other VLANs in different geographical locations.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the output shown? (Choose two.)
The network administrator configured VLANs 1002-1005.
The VLANs are in the active state and are in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.
A FDDI trunk has been configured on this switch.
The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1.
Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device.

8. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?
The ports cannot communicate with other ports.
The ports default back to the management VLAN.
The ports automatically become a part of VLAN1.
The ports remain a part of that VLAN until the switch is rebooted. They then become members of the management VLAN.

9. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?
VLAN 1 can never be deleted.
VLAN 1 can only be deleted by deleting the vlan.dat file.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from it.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its responsibilities.

10. What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command?
DTP cannot negotiate the trunk since the native VLAN is not the default VLAN.
The remote connected interface cannot negotiate a trunk unless it is also configured as dynamic desirable.
The connected devices dynamically determine when data for multiple VLANs must be transmitted across the link and bring the trunk up as needed.
A trunk link is formed if the remote connected device is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto or switchport mode trunk commands.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Cisco switches only support the ISL trunking protocol.
The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.
By default, Switch1 will only allow VLAN 5 across the link.
A common native VLAN should have been configured on the switches.

12. Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/1?
Disable DTP.
Delete any VLANs currently being trunked through port Fa0/1.
Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to default.
Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Computer B is unable to communicate with computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The link between the switches is up but not trunked.
VLAN 3 is not an allowed VLAN to enter the trunk between the switches.
The router is not properly configured to route traffic between the VLANs.
Computer D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A can communicate with computer B, but not with computer C or computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
The router is not properly configured for inter-VLAN routing.
VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5?
The default native VLAN is being used.
The trunking mode is set to auto.
Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches.
VLAN information about the interface encapsulates the Ethernet frames.

16. What statements describe how hosts on VLANs communicate?
Hosts on different VLANs use VTP to negotiate a trunk.
Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.
Hosts on different VLANs should be in the same IP network.
Hosts on different VLANs examine VLAN ID in the frame tagging to determine if the frame for their network.

17. Refer to the exhibit. How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by computer A propagated in the LAN domain?
none of the computers will receive the broadcast frame
computer A, computer B, computer C
computer A, computer D, computer G
computer B, computer C
computer D, computer G
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, computer F, computer G, computer H, computer I

18. What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple switches?
Configuring interswitch connections as trunks will cause all hosts on any VLAN to receive broadcasts from the other VLANs.
A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that is carried by that trunk.
Restricting trunk connections between switches to a single VLAN will improve efficiency of port usage.
Carrying all required VLANs on a single access port will ensure proper traffic separation.

19. Which two statements about the 802.1q trunking protocol are true? (Choose two.)
802.1q is Cisco proprietary.
802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address.
If 802.1q is used on a frame, the FCS must be recalculated.
802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.
802.1q allows the encapsulation of the original frame to identify the VLAN from which a frame originated.

20. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in "dynamic desirable" mode?
dynamic desirable mode
on or dynamic desirable mode
on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode
on, auto, dynamic desirable, or nonegotiate mode

21. Refer to the exhibit. Company HR is adding PC4, a specialized application workstation, to a new company office. The company will add a switch, S3, connected via a trunk link to S2, another switch. For security reasons the new PC will reside in the HR VLAN, VLAN 10. The new office will use the 172.17.11.0/24 subnet. After installation, the existing PCs are unable to access shares on PC4. What is the likely cause?
The switch to switch connection must be configured as an access port to permit access to VLAN 10 on S3.
The new PC is on a different subnet so Fa0/2 on S3 must be configured as a trunk port.
PC4 must use the same subnet as the other HR VLAN PCs.
A single VLAN cannot span multiple switches.

22. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.

CCNA 3:Module 4

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 09:29:00 +0000

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?
VLANs cannot be created on transparent mode switches.
Transparent mode switches do not forward VTP advertisements.
VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
Server mode switches neither listen to nor forward VTP messages from transparent mode switches.

2. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)
Switches must be connected via trunks.
The VTP domain name is case sensitive.
Transparent mode switches cannot be configured with new VLANs.
The VTP password is mandatory and case sensitive.
Switches that use VTP must have the same switch name.

3. Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)
Transparent mode switches can create VLAN management information.
Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.
Transparent mode switches can adopt VLAN management changes that are received from other switches.
Transparent mode switches originate updates about the status of their VLANS and inform other switches about that status.

4. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)
revision number
domain name
pruning
mode
domain password
version number

5. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?
A five-minute update timer has elapsed.
A port on the switch has been shutdown.
The switch is changed to the transparent mode.
A new host has been attached to a switch in the management domain.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the provided command output, what could be done to correct the problem?
Switch SW2 must be configured as a VTP client.
The switches must be interconnected via an access link.
The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name.
Both switches must be configured with the same VTP revision number.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.
This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
This switch is configured to allows the network manager to maximize bandwidth by restricting traffic to specific network devices.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be on S2?
S2 will automatically transition to VTP transparent mode.
S2 will remove all VLANs from the VLAN database until the cable is reconnected.
S2 will retain the VLANs as of the latest known revision, but will lose the VLANs if it is reloaded.
S2 will automatically send a VTP request advertisement to 172.17.99.11 when the cable is reconnected.

9. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?
It verifies the configured VTP password.
It verifies the VTP domain is configured to use VTP version 2.
It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.
It verifies the VTP domain name is V1.

10. How are VTP messages sent between switches in a domain?
Layer 2 broadcast
Layer 2 multicast
Layer 2 unicast
Layer 3 broadcast
Layer 3 multicast
Layer 3 unicast

11. What statement describes the default propagation of VLANs on a trunked link?
only VLAN 1
all VLANs
no VLANs
the native VLAN

12. Which two statements are true about VTP pruning? (Choose two.)
Pruning is enabled by default.
Pruning can only be configured on VTP servers.
Pruning must be configured on all VTP servers in the domain.
VLANs on VTP client-mode switches will not be pruned.
Pruning will prevent unnecessary flooding of broadcasts across trunks.

13. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
It suspends forwarding until a subset advertisement update arrives.
It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
It increments the revision number and forwards it to other switches.
It deletes the VLANs not included in the summary advertisement.
It issues summary advertisements to advise other switches of status changes.

14. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab_Network?
The switch operates as a VTP client.
The switch operates in VTP transparent mode.
The switch operates as a VTP server and deletes the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.
The switch operates as a VTP server in the default VTP domain and does not affect the configuration in the existing VTP domain.

15. What are two features of VTP client mode operation? (Choose two.)
unable to add VLANs
can add VLANs of local significance
forward broadcasts out all ports with no respect to VLAN information
can only pass VLAN management information without adopting changes
can forward VLAN information to other switches in the same VTP domain

16. Refer to the exhibit. S2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to S2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After S2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What will solve the problem?
Reset the revision number on S2 with either the delete VTP command or by changing the domain name and then changing it back.
Re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they propagate throughout the network.*
Change S1 to transparent VTP mode to reclaim all VLANs in vlan.dat and change back to server mode.
Change S2 to client mode so the VLANs will automatically propagate.

17. A network administrator is replacing a failed switch with a switch that was previously on the network. What precautionary step should the administrator take on the replacement switch to avoid incorrect VLAN information from propagating through the network?
Enable VTP pruning.
Change the VTP domain name.
Change the VTP mode to client.
Change all the interfaces on the switch to access ports.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches that are shown in the exhibit. What are two possible explanations for this? (Choose two.)
Switch1 is in client mode.
Switch2 is in server mode.
Switch2 is in transparent mode.
Switch1 is in a different management domain.
Switch1 has end devices that are connected to the ports.
Switch1 is using VTP version 1, and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.

19. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates?
All switches receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
Only switch SW2 receives updates and synchronizes VLAN information.
Only switches SW3 and SW4 receive updates and synchronize VLAN information.
SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.

20. Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
VTP allows a switch to be configured to belong to more than one VTP domain.
VTP dynamically communicates VLAN changes to all switches in the same VTP domain.

CCNA 3:Module 5

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 09:28:00 +0000

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
Non-root switches each have only one root port.

2. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

3. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
to negotiate a trunk between switches
to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

4. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
immediately loses its edge status
inhibits the generation of a TCN
goes immediately to a learning state
disables itself
becomes a normal spanning-tree port

5. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?
Switch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.
Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to host PC1.
Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1.

6. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)
PortFast is Cisco proprietary.
PortFast can negatively effect DHCP services.
PortFast is used to more quickly prevent and eliminate bridging loops.
Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence.
If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?
Router_1 will drop the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

8. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
election of the root bridge
blocking of the non-designated ports
selection of the designated trunk port
determination of the designated port for each segment

9. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports.
Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network.
Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?
Spanning tree blocks Gi0/1 on S3.
Gi0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.
Port priority makes Gi0/2 on S1 a root port.
S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.

11. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)
the max-age timer
the spanning-tree hold down timer
the forward delay
the spanning-tree path cost
the blocking delay

12. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
blocking
Learning
disabling
listening
forwarding

13. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)
RSTP uses a faster algorithm to determine root ports.
RSTP introduced the extended system ID to allow for more than 4096 VLANs.
Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
Like STP PortFast, an RSTP edge port that receives a BPDU loses its edge port status immediately and becomes a normal spanning-tree port.
Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.

14. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
one root bridge per network
all non-designated ports forwarding
one root port per non-root bridge
multiple designated ports per segment
one designated port per network

15. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?
STP and RSTP use the same BPDU format.
STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports.
STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role.
STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places alternate ports into forwarding state immediately.

16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?
Two hosts communicating between ports Fa0/2 and Fa0/4 have a cost of 38.
The priority was statically configured to identify the root.
STP is disabled on this switch.
The timers have been altered to reduce convergence time.

17. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
bridge priority
switching speed
number of ports
base MAC address
switch location
memory size

18. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
Shared
end-to-end
edge-type
boundary-type
point-to-many
point-to-point

19. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
alternate
backup
Designated
root

20. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?
bridge priority
MAC address
protocol
VLAN ID

CCNA 3:Module 6

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 09:25:00 +0000

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network design shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
This design will not scale easily.
The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain.
This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch.
This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the router.
If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.

2. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?
Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a FastEthernet interface on the router.
Interconnect the VLANs via the two additional FastEthernet interfaces.

3. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC2 can successfully ping the F0/0 interface on R1. PC2 cannot ping PC1. What might be the reason for this failure?
R1 interface F0/1 has not been configured for subinterface operation.
S1 interface F0/6 needs to be configured for operation in VLAN10.
S1 interface F0/8 is in the wrong VLAN.
S1 port F0/6 is not in VLAN10.

4. Refer to the exhibit. The commands for a router to connect to a trunked uplink are shown in the exhibit. A packet is received from IP address 192.168.1.54. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1 tagged for VLAN 10.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3 tagged for VLAN 120.
The router will not process the packet since the source and destination are on the same subnet.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.

5. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?
Traditional routing is only able to use a single switch interface. Router-on-a-stick can use multiple switch interfaces.
Traditional routing requires a routing protocol. Router-on-a-stick only needs to route directly connected networks.
Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port.
Traditional routing uses multiple paths to the router and therefore requires STP. Router-on-a-stick does not provide multiple connections and therefore eliminates the need for STP.

6. Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?
When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, each subinterface has a separate MAC address to send in response to ARP requests.
When VLANs are in use, the switch responds to ARP requests with the MAC address of the port to which the PC is connected.
When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MAC address of the physical interface in response to ARP requests.
When traditional inter-VLAN routing is in use, devices on all VLANs use the same physical router interface as their source of proxy ARP responses.

7. What two statements are true regarding the use of subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)
subinterfaces have no contention for bandwidth
more switch ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
fewer router ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
simpler Layer 3 troubleshooting than with traditional inter-VLAN routing
less complex physical connection than in traditional inter-VLAN routing

8. Which three elements must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
one subinterface per VLAN
one physical interface for each subinterface
one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
one trunked link per VLAN
a management domain for each subinterface
a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
Reliability of both subinterfaces is poor because ARP is timing out.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/0 on router R1 is connected to port Fa0/1 on switch S1. After the commands shown are entered on both devices, the network administrator determines that the devices on VLAN 2 are unable to ping the devices on VLAN 1. What is the likely problem?
R1 is configured for router-on-a-stick, but S1 is not configured for trunking.
R1 does not have the VLANs entered in the VLAN database.
Spanning Tree Protocol is blocking port Fa0/0 on R1.
The subinterfaces on R1 have not been brought up with the no shutdown command yet.

11. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?
PC1 and R1 interface F0/0.1 are on different subnets.
The encapsulation is missing on the R1 interface F0/0.
An IP address has not been assigned to the R1 physical interface.
The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.

12. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1 can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?
PC1 and PC3 are not in the same VLAN.
The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.
The S1 interface F0/11 should be assigned to VLAN30.
The F0/0 and F0/1 interfaces on R1 must be configured as trunks.

13. Devices on the network are connected to a 24-port Layer 2 switch that is configured with VLANs. Switch ports 0/2 to 0/4 are assigned to VLAN 10. Ports 0/5 to 0/8 are assigned to VLAN 20, and ports 0/9 to 0/12 are assigned to VLAN 30. All other ports are assigned to the default VLAN. Which solution allows all VLANs to communicate between each other while minimizing the number of ports necessary to connect the VLANs?
Configure ports 0/13 to 0/16 with the appropriate IP addresses to perform routing between VLANs.
Add a router to the topology and configure one FastEthernet interface on the router with multiple subinterfaces for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30.
Obtain a router with multiple LAN interfaces and configure each interface for a separate subnet, thereby allowing communication between VLANs.
Obtain a Layer 3 switch and configure a trunk link between the switch and router, and configure the router physical interface with an IP address on the native VLAN.

14. Which two statements are true about the interface fa0/0.10 command? (Choose two.)
The command applies VLAN 10 to router interface fa0/0.
The command is used in the configuration of router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing.
The command configures a subinterface.
The command configures interface fa0/0 as a trunk link.
Because the IP address is applied to the physical interface, the command does not include an IP address.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
The no shutdown command has not been issued on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.
A routing protocol must be configured on the network in order for the inter-VLAN routing to be successful.
Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.
Hosts in this network must be configured with the IP address that is assigned to the router physical interface as their default gateway.

16. What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?
Configure the physical interfaces on the router and enable a routing protocol.
Create the VLANs on the router and define the port membership assignments on the switch.
Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and enable a routing protocol on the router.
Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?
Port 0/4 is not active.
Port 0/4 is not a member of VLAN1.
Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.
Port 0/4 is using the wrong trunking protocol.

18. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?
The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
The no shutdown command must be given on each subinterface.
The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.

19. in which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead of a router-on-a-stick configuration?
a network with more than 100 subnetworks
a network with a limited number of VLANs
a network with experienced support personnel
a network using a router with one LAN interface

20. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is correctly configured for the VLANs that are displayed in the graphic. The configuration that is shown was applied to RTA to allow for interVLAN connectivity between hosts attached to Switch1. After testing the network, the administrator logged the following report:
Hosts within each VLAN can communicate with each other.
Hosts in VLAN5 and VLAN33 are able to communicate with each other.
Hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 do not have connectivity to host in other VLANs.
Why are hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 unable to communicate with hosts in different VLANs?
The router interface is shut down.
The VLAN IDs do not match the subinterface numbers.
All of the subinterface addresses on the router are in the same subnet.
The router was not configured to forward traffic for VLAN2.
The physical interface, FastEthernet0/0, was not configured with an IP address.

CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 7 (100%)

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 09:23:00 +0000

1. What will a wireless client transmit to discover the available WLAN networks?

probe request

2. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?

converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation

3. Why is security so important in wireless networks?

Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.

4. Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the network administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to distinguish this wireless network from others?

Network Name (SSID)

5. Which access method does a wireless access point use to allow for multiple user connectivity and distributed access?

CSMA/CA

6. What does a wireless access point use to allow WLAN clients to learn which networks are available in a given area?

beacon

7. Which three devices do many wireless routers incorporate? (Choose three.)

gateway for connecting to other network infrastructures
built-in Ethernet switch
wireless access point

8. Wireless users on a network complain about poor performance within a small area of a room. Moving away from this area in any direction improves performance dramatically. What is the first step in designing a solution to this problem?

This might be RF channel overlap, so the technician should verify the channels in use on each wireless access point and change to non-overlapping channels.

9. Which two conditions have favored adoption of 802.11g over 802.11a? (Choose two.)

802.11a suffers from a shorter range than 802.11g.
802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b, but 802.11a is not.

10. Which wireless technology standard provides the most compatibility with older wireless standards, but has greater performance?

802.11n

11. In a WLAN network, why should wireless access points be implemented with each access point using a different channel?

to keep signals from interfering with each other

12. What purpose does authentication serve in a WLAN?

determines that the correct host is utilizing the network

13. Which major problem does CSMA/CA overcome in wireless networks?

media contention

14. What wireless security feature allows a network administrator to configure an access point with wireless NIC unique identifiers so that only these NICs can connect to the wireless network?

MAC address filtering

15. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?

site survey

16. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)

A rogue access point represents a security risk for the local network.
With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must sniff the SSID before being able to connect.

17. What occurs when a rogue access point is added to a WLAN?

Unauthorized users can gain access to internal servers, thus causing a security hole.

18. What procedure can prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?

Force all devices on a WLAN to authenticate and monitor for any unknown devices.

19. Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network?

set up open access on both the access point and each device connected to it

20. Which two statements are true regarding wireless security? (Choose two.)

Default SSIDs on specific manufacturer APs are generally known and may permit hostile wireless connections.
Manually adding a network and setting the known SSID on a wireless client makes the network visible even if the SSID is not being broadcast.

21. Which two statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose two.)

Open authentication uses no client or AP verification.
802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication.

CCNA 3:Module 7

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 09:17:00 +0000

Options With Highlight Colours are Correct Answer

1. Which two conditions have favored adoption of 802.11g over 802.11a? (Choose two.)
802.11a suffers from a shorter range than 802.11g.
The 2.4 GHz frequency band is not as crowded as the 5 GHz band.
802.11a is more susceptible to RF interference from common commercial items.
802.11a uses a more expensive modulation technique than 802.11g.
802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b, but 802.11a is not.

2. Which two statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose two.)
802.11i uses 3DES for encryption.
Open authentication uses no client or AP verification.
The 802.11i protocol is functionally identical to WPA.
802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication.
A wireless client first associates with an AP and then authenticates for network access.

3. Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network?
set up WEP on the access point only
set up open access on both the access point and each device connected to it
set up full encryption on the access point while leaving each device connected to the network open
set up full encryption on each device of the WLAN while leaving the access point settings open

4. Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the network administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to distinguish this wireless network from others?
Network Mode
Network Name (SSID)
Radio Band
Wide Channel
Standard Channel

5. Which two statements are true regarding wireless security? (Choose two.)
MAC address filtering prevents the contents of wireless frames from being viewable.
Providing a wireless client with the network key allows an available network to be visible.
Disabling an access point from broadcasting the SSID prevents the access point from being discovered.
Default SSIDs on specific manufacturer APs are generally known and may permit hostile wireless connections.
Manually adding a network and setting the known SSID on a wireless client makes the network visible even if the SSID is not being broadcast.

6. Wireless users on a network complain about poor performance within a small area of a room. Moving away from this area in any direction improves performance dramatically. What is the first step in designing a solution to this problem?
This might be RF channel overlap, so the technician should verify the channels in use on each wireless access point and change to non-overlapping channels.
The RF power settings might be set too low on the wireless access points servicing the room. Increase the RF output power on all wireless access points.
Install a new wireless access point in this center area to provide coverage.
Verify that the wireless access points have sufficient in-line power and connectivity to the wired network.

7. Which three devices do many wireless routers incorporate? (Choose three.)
gateway for connecting to other network infrastructures
built-in Ethernet switch
network management station
VTP server
wireless access point
VPN concentrator

8. Which access method does a wireless access point use to allow for multiple user connectivity and distributed access?
CSMA/CD
token passing
CSMA/CA
polling

9. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

10. Which wireless technology standard provides the most compatibility with older wireless standards, but has greater performance?
802.11a
802.11b
802.11g
802.11n

11. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
A rogue access point represents a security risk for the local network.
Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
Using encryption prevents unauthorized clients from associating with an access point.
An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.
With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must sniff the SSID before being able to connect.

12. Which network design process identifies where to place access points?
site survey
risk assessment
scalability design
network protocol analysis

13. What wireless security feature allows a network administrator to configure an access point with wireless NIC unique identifiers so that only these NICs can connect to the wireless network?
authentication
SSID broadcasting
MAC address filtering
EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)
Radius (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

14. What will a wireless client transmit to discover the available WLAN networks?
beacon
password
probe request
association request

15. In a WLAN network, why should wireless access points be implemented with each access point using a different channel?
to keep users segregated on separate subnets
to control the amount of bandwidth that is utilized
to keep signals from interfering with each other
to keep traffic secure

16. What purpose does authentication serve in a WLAN?
converts clear text data before transmission
indicates which channel the data should flow on
determines that the correct host is utilizing the network
allows the host to choose which channel to use

17. What occurs when a rogue access point is added to a WLAN?
Authorized access points can transmit excess traffic to rogue access points to help alleviate congestion.
Unauthorized users can gain access to internal servers, thus causing a security hole.
All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be encrypted.
All traffic that uses the same channel as the rogue access point will be required to authenticate.

18. What procedure can prevent man-in-the-middle attacks?
Force all devices on a WLAN to authenticate and monitor for any unknown devices.
Enable access points to send an SSID to each device wanting to use the network.
Configure MAC filtering on all authorized access points.
Disable SSID broadcasts.

19. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?
dynamically assigns an IP address to the host
provides local DHCP services
converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation
provides a gateway for connecting to other networks

20. Which major problem does CSMA/CA overcome in wireless networks?
bandwidth saturation
privacy concerns
media contention
device interoperability

21. What does a wireless access point use to allow WLAN clients to learn which networks are available in a given area?
association response
beacon
key
probe request

CCNA3 FINAL

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 04:22:00 +0000

1

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. The show ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on the
Switch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in the exhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be applied

to the switch?

Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

==> Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

2

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?

802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

==> 802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

3
What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
==> All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
4

Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
==> SSID

OFDM

WEP

DSSS

5

Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?

SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.

==> SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.

SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.

SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.
6
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?

QoS
routing
==> trunking
VPN

7

Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
==> S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
==> S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.
8
Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
==> This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
==> This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.
9

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
==> S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

10

Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
==> Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.
11
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
==> Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.

12
What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
A new RSA key pair is created.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
==> The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.

13

Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?

==> forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3

add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table

forward the frame out Interface3

discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces

forward the frame out Interface2
14

Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

==> It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
==> It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

15

Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
==> 192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
16
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
==> SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
17

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
==> A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
==> An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.

18
Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
computer B
computer B and Router1
==> computer C and Router1
computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
19
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The SSH version number is wrong.

SSH has been configured on the wrong line.

Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.

==> The transport input command is configured incorrectly.

20
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
==> Cat-C
Cat-D
21
Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
==> VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005

22

Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?

The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.

==> Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.

This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.

23

Which three statements are regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
==> requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
==> more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
==> can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces

24

Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
==> The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
25

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)

S1-Central# reload
S1-Central# erase flash:
==> S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
==> S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3

26
Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?

==> The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
==> Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
28

What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
==> reduced contention for bandwidth
reduced size of the physical layout
==> increased fault tolerance of the network
elimination of the need for wiring closets
elimination of the need for layer three functionality
==> simplification of management and troubleshooting
29
Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
==> Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
==> A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
==> The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.

30
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of ==> SW1.

The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

31

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
AS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
==> Gateway and CS1
Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2
32

Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)

Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
==> All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
==> The flash directory contains the IOS image.
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
==> All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.

33

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
==> After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
==> If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.

34

Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
==> The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

35

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
==> Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
==> Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

36

What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
==> Select the correct VTP mode and version.
==> Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
==> Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain.
37

Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
==> only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E

38
Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?
The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
==> The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.

39
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
==> This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
==> Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.
Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.

40

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)

==> The switch ports are on different VLANs.

The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
==> The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
==> A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.

41

Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?

switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
==> switch F
42
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?

hub HB1
==> switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4
43
Top of Form
Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
==> BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.

44
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
==> Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
45
What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
disable port security
make the port operational
override the default port behavior
==> force the port to be a part of a single vlan

46

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the information shown?
Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
==> Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs .

47

Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
AID
SSID
==> BSSID
ESSID

48

Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?

A syslog message will be logged.
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
==> The incoming frames will be dropped.
The security violation count will be incremented.
49
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
client
root
server
==> transparent

50
Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
==> From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

51
Top of Form
What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
==> The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

52

What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
==> provides improved range
==> permits increased data rates
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

CCNA 3 final test

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 04:20:00 +0000

1

Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?

interface vlan 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
interface vlan 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown

*** interface fastethernet 0/0
no shutdown
interface fastethernet 0/0.2
encapsulation dot1q 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
interface fastethernet 0/0.3
encapsulation dot1q 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0

interface vlan 2
switchport mode trunk dot1q
interface vlan 3
switchport mode trunk dot11

interface fastethernet 0/0
mode trunk dot1q 2 3
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0

2

Refer to the graphic. If the switches are new and have been cabled as shown, which switch will become the root bridge?

*** SC

CE

JB

JP

JN

cannot be determined from the information given

3
A switch is operating in VTP client mode. What is true about the operations that can be performed by the switch?

VLANs that are created are not included in advertisements.

*** It can only adopt VLAN changes advertised from a VTP server.

It advertises topology changes out all trunk ports.

It can modify existing VLANs, but can not create new ones.

It can create and modify VLANs, but can not delete existing ones.

4
Why would a network administrator choose to enable authentication for OSPF exchanges? (Choose two.)

*** to prevent routing information from being falsified

to reduce OSPF information exchange overhead

to assure that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or IGRP updates

to encrypt routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing

*** to ensure that routing information comes from a valid source

5
A network administrator asked an assistant to remove several VLANs from a switch. When the assistant entered in the no vlan 1 command an error was received. What was the cause of the error?

VLANs can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from the VLAN assignment.

VLANs can only be deleted by the user that created them.

VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its duties.

*** VLAN1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.

The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.

6
Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate?

physical

distribution

data link

*** access

core

7

Refer to the graphic. What will be the result of DR elections in the network presented in the graphic using OSPF? (Choose three.)

RTC will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.

*** RTD will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.

RTA will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.

*** RTD will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.

*** RTB will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.

RTD will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.

8
Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?

VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.

VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.

All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.

*** Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.

9
Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)

*** RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.

RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.

The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.

*** A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.

*** The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.

RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network.

10
Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?

access

backbone

*** distribution

core

11
A company has been assigned three Class C addresses and requires the use of supernetting in its addressing scheme. Which routing protocol could be used to configure the company routers to support supernetting? (Choose two.)

*** a classless routing protocol

a classful routing protocol

*** OSPF

IGRP

RIP v1

12

Refer to the graphic. What does the mode of FORWARDING mean in the spanning-tree process?

*** The switch is sending and receiving frames.

The switch is receiving frames, but cannot send frames.

The switch is participating in an election process.

The switch is only receiving BPDUs, not data, and is not sending any type of frames.

13

Refer to the graphic. The network administrator has determined that RTRA needs to be the DR because it is the more powerful router. Which of the following commands would be used to control the election process?

RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ospf priority 0

*** RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
*** RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255

RTRA(config)# ospf priority 1

RTRA(config)# ip ospf priority 255

RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0

14
Which device provides connectivity between IP routed networks and subnetworks?

switch

bridge

*** router

active hub

15
Which statements describe features of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)

*** allows packets to be received and sent simultaneously by a host

requires a minimum of two wires

*** reduces the number of collisions

allocates between 60 and 80 percent of available bandwidth in both directions

*** allocates 100 percent of the bandwidth in both directions

increases the number of broadcast domains

16

Refer to the graphic. Both routers are configured using RIP v1. Both routers are sending updates about the directly connected routes. R1 can successfully ping the serial interface of R2. The routing table on R1 does not contain any dynamically learned routes from R2, and the routing table on R2 shows no dynamically learned routes from R1. What is the problem?

Subnetting is not supported by RIP v1.

One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.

CIDR is not supported by RIP v1.

*** VLSM is not supported by RIP v1.

17

The network administrator shown in the graphic is connected to Switch3 using a LAN Ethernet connection. The administrator needs to verify configuration settings on the newly installed Switch2. What actions must the administrator take to access Switch2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)

Configure the hostname on Switch2.

*** Activate the HTTP service on Switch2.

Set the management VLAN password.

*** Configure IP addressing parameters on Switch2.

*** Establish host connectivity to Switch2.

18

Refer to the graphic. Router A and C are completely configured and the administrator needs to configure the routing protocol on Router B so that communication occurs throughout the network. Which of the following commands configures routing on Router B?

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 area 0

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary

*** B(config)# router eigrp 1
*** B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0

19

Refer to the graphic. If the network is running OSPF, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links between Router2 and the other routers shown in the diagram?

192.1.1.4/30 and 192.1.1.8/30

192.1.1.32/30 and 192.1.1.160/30

192.1.1.96/30 and 192.1.1.100/30

192.1.1.160/30 and 192.1.1.164/30

*** 192.1.1.192/30 and 192.1.1.196/30

20
Which of the following are attributes of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)

Periodic updates are sent every 120 seconds to neighboring routers.

Each router sends its entire routing table to neighboring routers.

*** Routers send updates when a change in the network is detected.

*** Link-state protocols converge more rapidly than distance vector protocols.

After convergence, link-state protocols use more bandwidth than distance vector protocols use.

*** Link-state protocols are less prone to routing loops than distance vector protocols.

21

Which command configures the static address shown in the graphic?

Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1

*** Switch1(config)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1

Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

22
The following command was added to a router's configuration: ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.15.3. What will adding this command accomplish? (Choose two.)

A default route will be created.

*** A static route will be created.

*** Information about the 192.168.20.0 network learned dynamically will be ignored as long as the static route exists.

All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded out interface 192.168.20.245.

The route will be added as a RIP route in the routing table.

23

Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate?

physical

data link

core

access

network

*** distribution

24

Which command is used to obtain the information presented in the above graphic?

show vlan ifindex

show vlan id

*** show vlan brief

show running-config

25

Refer to the graphic. Two Catalyst switches with ports configured for VLANs 3 and 4 are connected. The hosts on SW-A and SW-B need to communicate with one another. Which of the following commands is used to configure Port 1 on SW-B? Note that SW-B Port 1 used to have a host connected to it before the switch was connected to SW-A.

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# vlan 1 trunk
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

*** (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
*** (config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

26
How do EIGRP routers actively maintain neighbor relationships?

by the exchange of hello packets with neighboring routers

by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors

by the exchange of neighbor tables with directly attached routers

by comparing known routes to received updates

*** by the exchange of routing tables with directly attached routers

by continuously monitoring the status of the router ports

27
What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?

elect a designated switch

use a router to locate a default gateway

*** elect a root bridge

determine the path cost of each active port on the switch

28

Refer to the graphic. Which commands would direct outbound traffic from R1 to the ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 200.1.1.0?

R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0. 0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0

*** R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
*** ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

29
Which switching method increases latency and reliability more than any other method?

cut-through

fast-forward

fragment-free

*** store-and-forward

30

Consider the networks shown in the graphic. Which of the following is the correct configuration for Router B if OSPF is being used as the routing protocol?

B(config)# router ospf 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

B(config)# router ospf 99
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 255.255.255.224 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.248 area 0

*** B(config)# router ospf 1
*** B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
*** B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

31
What does a constant amber SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?

The switch is going through POST.

The switch is in the process of initializing ports.

The switch has failed POST.

*** The switch has passed POST and is working properly.

32

Refer to the graphic. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge in the spanning-tree process?

highest Layer 2 address

highest priority number

highest path cost

lowest Layer 2 address

*** lowest priority number

lowest path cost

33
A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate network. If the network currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce collisions?

add additional hubs

*** replace hubs with switches

replace hubs with access points

add a router to every hub segment

34

One part of the network shown in the graphic uses IGRP and another part uses EIGRP. Which statement is true about this network?

IP traffic will not be routable from network 192.168.1.0 to network 10.1.1.0.

The autonomous system number in the IGRP network must be converted to an EIGRP autonomous system number.

*** The route to network 192.168.1.0 will be tagged as external by the EIGRP routers.

The IGRP router will classify routes learned from the EIGRP routers as internal.

The IGRP router will not detect EIGRP routers.

EIGRP is not backward compatible and the IGRP routes will not be detected.

35
Which of the following features do RIPv1 and RIPv2 have in common? (Choose three.)

*** hop count as a metric

classless routing

*** use split horizon

*** maximum hop count is 15

broadcast updates

no authentication

36
When configuring the networks that need to be advertised on a router using EIGRP, which of the following can be configured on the router? (Choose three.)

*** the network number

subnet mask

*** wildcard mask

process number

area ID

*** autonomous system number

37

Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the following could be the problem ｂａｓｅd on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the switch?

The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.

*** The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.

The router is not configured for trunking.

The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.

38

Refer to the graphic above. The network has stabilized and SW-F has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. Network traffic indicates that SW-A would be a better selection for the root bridge. How can the network administrator accomplish this task?

change the bridge priority of SW-F to a lower value

change the bridge priority of SW-F to a higher value

*** change the bridge priority of SW-A to a lower value

change the bridge priority of SW-A to a higher value

39

Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands is used to configure switch port 2 for the host on VLAN 2?

*** (config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
*** (config-if)# switchport mode access
*** (config-if)# switchport access vlan 2

(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode access 2

(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
(config-if)# vlan 2

40
Which of the following statements are true about routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose three.)

*** They can support multiple routed protocols.

They can support only link-state protocols.

They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.

*** They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.

They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.

*** They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.

41

A network administrator located at the East site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Corporate site. The show hosts command is entered on the East router but does not produce any output. Which command can be used to gain access to the Corporate LAN switch assuming the switch is assigned the IP address 172.16.15.5/24?

dial Corporate 172.16.15.5

line vty 0 4
telnet

telnet Corporate

*** telnet 172.16.15.5

42

What is an advantage of building a network such as the one shown in the graphic?

*** provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure

provides alternate routes when spanning tree has a problem

provides alternate network routes when the Spanning Tree Protocol is converging

provides concurrent paths for faster data transfers

43

What type of connectivity (refer to point A in the graphic) is required between SW1 and SW2? Note that SW1 has VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 configured and SW2 has VLANs 5, 6, 7, and 8 configured. Also, the computers on the same VLAN need the ability to communicate with one another.

access

channel

interVLAN

intraVLAN

*** trunk

44

Refer to the graphic and the following configurations from the routers. Router A is not receiving any OSPF routes from the other routers. ｂａｓｅd on the Router A and Router B configurations, what is the problem?

A# show running-config
--output omitted--
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.65 255.255.255.192
interface Serial 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
clockrate 64000
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

B# show running-config
--output omitted--
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.129 255.255.255.192
interface Serial0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
interface Serial0/1
ip address 192.168.10.5 255.255.255.252
clockrate 56000
router ospf 2
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 area 0

*** duplicate IP address

mismatched OSPF process IDs

mismatched OSPF timers

mismatched clock rates

45

Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B are running EIGRP and Router C is running IGRP. Which of the following is necessary for Router C to automatically see routes from Routers A and B?

Routers B and C must use the same autonomous system number, but Router A can use a different autonomous system number.

*** Routers A, B, and C must all use the same autonomous system number.

Routers B and C must both use the redistribute igrp as_number command.

No commands are necessary. EIGRP routes are always seen by IGRP routers.

46
Which of the following is true about Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

eliminates physical loops in network topologies

*** eliminates logical loops in network topologies

can only be used in networks where routers are installed

*** can only be used in networks where switches are incorporated into the design

can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used

47
A company with the address 192.168.3.0 needs an address scheme that supports ten networks with a maximum of seven hosts per segment. The network administrator wants to use VLSM for the most efficient use of addresses. What is a valid address to assign to one of the LAN links?

192.168.3.192

*** 192.168.3.209

192.168.3.223

192.168.3.225

192.168.3.235

48
Which of the following commands can be used to configure the default management VLAN on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

*** (config)# interface vlan 1
*** (config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
*** (config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface management vlan
(config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# switchport mode vlan 1
(config-if)# no shutdown

49
When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes

when a router has more than three active interfaces

*** when a router has discontiguous networks attached

when a router has less than five active interfaces

50

Consider the network shown in the graphic. Which of the following IP addresses would be valid for a company that is leasing a single Class C network address and using VLSM for maximum efficiency?

200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.176 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.196 /30 for the second pair of serial links

200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.80 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.96 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.128 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.132 /30 for the second pair of serial links

*** 200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
*** 200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
*** 200.1.1.160 /28 for the 10 users
*** 200.1.1.176 /30 for one pair of serial links
*** 200.1.1.180 /30 for the second pair of serial links

200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.64 /26 for the 25 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.192 /30 for the second pair of serial links

CCNA 3 - Final Exam

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 04:13:00 +0000

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. Theshow ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on theSwitch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in theexhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be appliedto the switch?
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

2. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?
• 802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
• 802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
• 802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame. • 802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
3. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
• All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
• The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
4. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
• SSID
• OFDM
• WEP
• DSSS
5. Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?
• SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.
• SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.
• SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
• SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.
6. Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
• QoS
• routing
• trunking
• VPN
7. Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
• S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
• S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
• S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
• S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
• S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
• This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
• This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
• This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
• This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
• This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.
9. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
• S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
• R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
• The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
• Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
10. Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
• Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
• Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
• Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
• Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.
11. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
• Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
• Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
• Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
• Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.
12. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
• A new RSA key pair is created.
• The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
• The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
• The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.
13. Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
• forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
• add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
• forward the frame out Interface3
• discard the frame
• forward the frame out all interfaces
• forward the frame out Interface2
14. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
• It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
• It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
• It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
• It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
• It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.
15. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
• 192.168.1.11 /28
• 192.168.1.22 /28
• 192.168.1.33 /28
• 192.168.1.44 /28
• 192.168.1.55 /28
16. Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
• SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
• SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
• SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
• SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
17. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
• computer B
• computer B and Router1
• computer C and Router1
• computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
• computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
• computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• The SSH version number is wrong.
• SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
• Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
• The transport input command is configured incorrectly.
20. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
• Cat-A
• Cat-B
• Cat-C
• Cat-D
21. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
• VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
• VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
• VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
• VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005
22. Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
• The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.
• Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.
• This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
• The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
• When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.
23. Which three statements are regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
• requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
• requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
• more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
• requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
• can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
• makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces
24. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
• The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
• The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
25. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)
• S1-Central# reload
• S1-Central# erase flash:
• S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
• S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
• S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
26. Refer to the exhibit. What does “FORWARDING” mean in the command output shown?
• The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
• The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
• The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
• The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
• Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
• Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
• Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
• Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
28. What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
• reduced contention for bandwidth
• reduced size of the physical layout
• increased fault tolerance of the network
• elimination of the need for wiring closets
• elimination of the need for layer three functionality
• simplification of management and troubleshooting
29. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
• Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
• A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
• The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
• A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
• Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
• An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.
30. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
• All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
• SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
• VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
• The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.
31. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
• AS1 and AS2
• DS1 and DS2
• Gateway and CS1
• Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2
32. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
• Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
• Enable password is configured as cisco.
• All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
• The flash directory contains the IOS image.
• VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
• All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.
33. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
• After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
• The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
• If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.
34. Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
• The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
• The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
• The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
• The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
35. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
• Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
• Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
• Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
• Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
• Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
36. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
• Select the correct VTP mode and version.
• Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
• Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
• Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
• Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
• Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain.
37. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
• only hosts A and B
• only hosts A, B, and C
• only hosts A, B, C, and D
• only hosts A, B, C, and E
38. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is ?
• The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
• The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
• The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.
• To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.
39. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
• This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
• A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
• Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.
• Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
• The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.
40. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
• The switch ports are on different VLANs.
• The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
• The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
• A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
• The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
• The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
41. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
• switch A
• switch B
• switch C
• switch D
• switch E
• switch F
42. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?
• hub HB1
• switch SW1
• router R1
• switch SW2
• router R2
• switch SW4
43. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
• The network diameter limitation is 9.
• BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
• The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
• The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.
44. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
• Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
• No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
• One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
45. What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
• disable port security
• make the port operational
• override the default port behavior
• force the port to be a part of a single vlan
46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is regarding the information shown?
• Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
• The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
• A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
• Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs
47. Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
• AID
• SSID
• BSSID
• ESSID
48. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?
• A syslog message will be logged.
• Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
• The incoming frames will be dropped.
• The security violation count will be incremented.
49. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
• client
• root
• server
• transparent
50. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
• Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
• Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
• From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
• Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.
51. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
• Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses
• The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
• The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
• The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
• Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.
52. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
• requires less equipment
• provides improved range
• permits increased data rates
• has a single-input and a single-output
• needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

CCNA 2 - Module 1

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 04:03:00 +0000

If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.

Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode

Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.

Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing

Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet

Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface

The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
cross-over
Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.

What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
the last restart method
the configuration register settings
the location from where the IOS loaded

Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
1
4

From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
TFTP server
Flash memory

A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
Router1# copy running-config startup-config

What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
the Layer 2 source and destination address

CCNA 2 - Module 2

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 04:02:00 +0000

Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
platform
holdtime
local interface

Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.

The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
No clock rate has been set.

A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
172.16.0.0/21

Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
a modem
a CSU/DSU device

A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
Interface IP address

Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.

Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ping
traceroute
show ip route

What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The route is removed from the table.

The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/25

Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.

A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0

CCNA 2 - Module 3

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 04:00:00 +0000

Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
show ip route

Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
the network is using a hub and spoke topology
the network is using a flat design

What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
shortest-path first calculations

Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
increased security
the administrator maintains control over routing

The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
The administrative distance of this route is 1.

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
The cost for this link has a value of 129.

A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
OSPF can be used between the routers.

Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
3

A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

CCNA 2 - Module 4

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 03:57:00 +0000

Which event will cause a triggered update?

a route is installed in the routing table

Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?

They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

What does the RIP holddown timer do?

instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).

updates are broadcast at regular intervals broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?

will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)

EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information. EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?

It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)

RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA. Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.

Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?

Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?

route poisoning

What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?

limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)

routing loops inconsistent traffic forwarding inconsistent routing table entries

Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?

The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)

EIGRP only updates affected neighbors. EIGRP updates are partial.

Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?

The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).

RIPv1 EIGRP RIPv2

What is a routing loop?

a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)

inconsistent routing tables incorrectly configured static routes

What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?

16

What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?

adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route

Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
3

CCNA 2 - Module 5

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Sun, 03 May 2009 03:54:00 +0000

CCNA 2 - Module 5

Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?

Router1(config-router)# passive-interface fastethernet 0/0

The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
3

Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.

Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still in the Router1 routing table. How much longer will Router1 keep the down network in its routing table before marking it as possibly down?
155 seconds

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
uses hop count as a metric
considers a metric of 16 as infinity
calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm

Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
30

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
The default-information originate command has been entered on A.

Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.

Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
It is a distance vector routing protocol.
The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
RouterB(config)# no router rip

Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]

Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
debug ip rip

Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?
There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
10.0.0.0/8

Refer to the exhibit. Pings between the serial interfaces of the routers are successful. Hosts on each LAN can ping the Fa0/0 interface of the router to which they are directly connected through the switch. However, pings between hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 networks are unsuccessful. What is a likely cause of this problem?
RIP is configured incorrectly on R1.

What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
only the gateway router

CCNA 2 - Module 6

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Fri, 01 May 2009 04:14:00 +0000

What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
reduced routing table size
reduced routing update traffic

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
255.255.255.252

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
192.168.0.0/21

Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
32-bit address
subnet mask

Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
the shortage of IP addresses

What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied if Router A sends a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0 to Router B?
24

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
CIDR

A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.224 for Sales
255.255.255.240 for QA

In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
84

A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/27

An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
192.1.1.224/28

Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
OSPF
RIP v2
EIGRP

Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
29

Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
192.168.2.130/25

Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
192.168.4.15/29

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
Because RIPv2 does not support VLSM, the subnet masks will not be allowed.
The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2....successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network....successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
5. pings from R2 to host B....successful.
The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

What is a supernet?
a summarization of classful addresses

CCNA 2 - Module 7

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Fri, 01 May 2009 04:12:00 +0000

Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
Router1 will install a route to 192.168.0.0/20
Router2 will not install a route to 192.168.16.0/20

Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
Router2(config-router)# version 2

What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
They both use hop count as a metric.
They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in
this network?
The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:
Sanford(config)# interface loopback1
Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252
Why does the router respond with an error?
The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.
What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
15 hops

What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)
identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/12
192.168.0.0/16

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# defaultinformation
originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
propagates the default route to all routers in the network

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
Configure RIPv2 on routers.

What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?
subnet mask

Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?
Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.

Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:
router rip
network 10.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0
When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?
RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?
Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

CCNA 2 - Module 8

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Fri, 01 May 2009 04:11:00 +0000

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
All of the routes listed are network routes.

Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet

Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
172.16.0.0/16

The following entry is displayed in the routing table:
R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1
What type of route is this?
a level 1 ultimate network route

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
do nothing, ip classless is on by default

Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
use the default route

Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
7

Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
send packet out Serial 0/0/1

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
There is at least one parent and one child route

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 has been issued the ip classless command. What happens to packets destined to host 172.16.3.10?
forward out interface Serial0/0/1

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
ip classless
A router has the following entries in its routing table:
S 192.168.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.128.2
O 192.168.0.0/25 [110/2175] via 172.16.1.1, 00:02:15, FastEthernet0/1
D 192.168.0.0/25 [90/22455] via 172.16.2.2, 00:12:15, Serial0/0/0
R 192.168.0.0/26 [120/2] via 172.16.3.3, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/1
The router receives a packet that is destined for a host with the address 192.168.0.58. Which route would this router use to forward the packet?
the RIP route

What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
Multiple routes with different masks to the same destination are in the routing table.

What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child routes for a better match.

Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched
first and why?
172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route

A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination

Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
255.255.255.0

Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
RIPv2

A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
administrative distance

CCNA 2 - Module 9

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Fri, 01 May 2009 04:07:00 +0000

On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
topology table

Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3

What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)
query neighbors for a new route
search topology table for a feasible successor

Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?
the route is in a stable state

In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)
routing
topology

What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
the routing protocol
the feasible distance of the route
the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router

Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.

Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
routes learned from other routing protocols
EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems

Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
R2(config-router)# no auto-summary

Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)
EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.
EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.
The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.

Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695 represent?
the total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor

Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are configured on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.

Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP as their routing protocol, what path will packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
A,B,E

By default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between networks?
delay
bandwidth

Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single entity that presents a common routing policy to the Internet?
autonomous system

Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number of 10. Pings between hosts on networks that are connected to router A and those that are connected to router B are successful. However, users on the 192.168.3.0 network are unable to reach users on the 192.168.1.32 network. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.

In the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?
identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise

The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a feasible successor route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what does EIGRP do when the primary route to this network fails?
The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.

What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is learned from a source external to the autonomous system?
170

Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send to Router1 and Router3?
unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

CCNA 2 - Module 10

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Fri, 01 May 2009 04:05:00 +0000

Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
whenever the network topology changes
upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

What is the final step in the link state routing process?
SPF computes best path to each destination network

What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors
all routers in the area have identical link state databases

Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
cost of the link

What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network

What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
updates triggered by network changes

Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
Dijkstra

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
link-state database

Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
IS-IS
OSPF

When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
when a link goes up or down

Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
OSPF

What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
floods the LSP to neighbors

Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
B and C

CCNA 2 - Module 11

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Fri, 01 May 2009 04:01:00 +0000

1
Refer to the exhibit. What does the "O*E2" from the "O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0" line represent?
an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
1786

What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
area id
hello interval
network type

What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
designated router
backup designated router

What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
bandwidth

A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?
Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.

Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?
B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?
R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

Refer to the exhibit. What does the "2" stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?
The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?
The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.

Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?
B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5

Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?
6

What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?
110

Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR.
What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?
A(config)# interface fa0/0
A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
1787

What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?
192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?
nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?
A FULL adjacency is formed.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)
DR for network 192.168.1.200
BDR for network 192.168.1.204

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?
OSPF hello or dead timers do not match.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?
There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)
Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.

Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?
hello packets

CCNA 2 v4.0 Final Exam Answers

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Fri, 01 May 2009 03:45:00 +0000

Download CCNA 2 v4.0 Final Exam Answers

CCNA2 FINAL2 (new 25/12/08)

noreply@blogger.com (Manindra) — Fri, 01 May 2009 03:42:00 +0000

1. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for three routers on a network is displayed. All routers are operational, pings are not blocked on this network, and no default routes are installed. Which two pings will fail? (Choose two.)
from R1 to 172.16.1.1
** from R1 to 192.168.3.1
from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1
** from R3 to 192.168.1.1
172.16.4.0/24

2. A router that uses the RIP routing protocol has an entry for a network in the routing table. It then receives an update with another entry for the same destination network but with a lower hop count. What action will the router take for this new update?
** It will append the update information to the routing table.
It will invalidate the entry for that network in the routing table.
It will replace the existing routing table entry with the new information.
It will ignore the new update.

3. Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.)
They negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.
They use timers to elect the designated router with the fastest link.
** They are received from all routers on the network and used to determine the complete network topology.
** They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.

4. A network administrator needs to configure a single router to loadbalance the traffic over unequal cost paths. Which routing protocol should the administrator use?
EIGRP
OSPF
RIPv1
** RIPv2

5. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
** It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
** It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.

6. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run on one of the devices as shown. Based on this information, which two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
** The command was run on the router.
ABCD is a non CISCO device.
Layer 3 connectivity between two devices exists.
ABCD supports routing capability.
** ABCD is connected to the Fa0/0 interface of the neighboring device.

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?
R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface.
The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2.
The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.
** R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
**The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
** Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
** No default route has been configured.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All the routers are properly configured to use the RIP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
Router A will send the data via the ADE path that is listed in the routing table.
Router A will loadbalance the traffic between ABE and ACE.
** Router A will determine that all paths have equal metric cost.
Router A will send the data through ADE and keep ABE and ACE as the backup paths.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the following command on R1.
R1# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.2What is the result of running this command?
** Traffic for network 192.168.2.0 is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.2.0.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?
** the IP address of the server
the default gateway of host A
the IP address of host A
the default gateway of the server

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPF using the following command:
network 192.168.1.32 0.0.0.31 area 0
Which router interface will participate in OSPF?
FastEthernet 0/0
FastEthernet 0/1
** Serial 0/0/0
Serial 0/0/1

13. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to run RIPv1 and are fully converged. Which routing updates will be received by R3?
updates for 192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.2.0/24
updates for 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
** updates for 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
updates for 172.16.0.0/16

14. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network. What is a possible cause of this problem?
** The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The R1 configuration should include the no autosummary command.
The maximum path number has been exceeded.

15. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?
ROM, TFTP server, flash
flash, TFTP server, RAM
** flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
ROM, flash, TFTP server

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
Router1
Router2
Router3
** Router4

17. Which mechanism helps to avoid routing loops by advertising a metric of infinity?
** route poisoning
split horizon
holddown timer
triggered updates

18. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 120?
It is the metric that is calculated by the routing protocol.
It is the value that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
** It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.
It is the holddown time, measured in seconds, before the next update.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator successfully pings R1 from R3. Next, the administrator runs the show cdp neighbors command on R3. The output of this command is displayed.What are two reasons for the absence of R1 in the output? (Choose two.)
There is a Layer 2 connectivity problem between R1 and R3.
The Fa0/0 interface of R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address.
**The no cdp run command has been run at R1.
**The no cdp enable command has been run at Fa0/1 interface of R3.R1 is powered off.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A device is required to complete the connection between router R1 and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.)
** a CSU/DSU device
** a modem
an Ethernet switch
a hub
a bridge

21. In a complex lab test environment, a router has discovered four paths to 192.168.1.0/24 via the use of the RIP routing process. Which route will be installed in the routing table after the discovery of all four paths?
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.110.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/0
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/0
** R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/1
R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/4] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/1

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator accesses router R1 from the console port to configure a newly connected interface. What passwords will the network administrator need to enter to make the connection and the necessary configuration changes?
the Cisco123 password only
the Cisco789 password only
the Cisco001 password only
** the Cisco001 password and the Cisco789 passwords
the Cisco001 password and the Cisco123 passwords

23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator adds this command to router R1: ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. What is the result of adding this command?
This route is automatically propagated throughout the network.
The traffic for network 172.16.1.0 is forwarded to network 192.168.2.0.
** A static route is established.
The traffic for all Class C networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The router receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.5.79. How will the router handle this packet?
It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/1 interface.
It will forward the packet via the FastEthernet0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/0 interface.
** It will drop the packet.

25. Which two statements are true about classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
** They can be used for discontiguous subnets.
** They can forward supernet routes in routing updates.
They cannot implement classful routes in routing tables.
They use only a hop count metric.
They do not include the subnet mask in routing updates.

26. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?
1
3
** 4
6

27. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what two ways does EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails? (Choose two.)
It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to reestablish neighbor adjacencies.
** It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.
It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until the lost route is unknown to the neighbors.
** It automatically forwards traffic to a fallback default route until a successor route is found.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
** 10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
** 192.168.2.0/24

29. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
** All routes are stable.
** The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
Each route has one feasible successor.

30. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured with default configurations and are running the OSPF routing protocol. The network is fully converged. A host on the 192.168.3.0/24 network is communicating with a host on the 192.168.2.0/24 network. Which path will be used to transmit the data?
The data will be transmitted via R3-R2.
** The data will be transmitted via R3-R1-R2.
The traffic will be loadbalanced between two paths — one via R3-R2, and the other via R3-R1-R2.
The data will be transmitted via R3-R2, and the other path via R3-R1-R2 will be retained as the backup path.

31. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
** A(config)# router rip
A(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.48
B(configrouter)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(configrouter)# no network 192.168.25.32
B(config)# router rip
B(configrouter)# passiveinterface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip

32. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts on the R1 LAN are unable to access the Internet. What is incorrectly configured?
the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface at R1
the IP address of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2
** the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface at R1
the subnet mask of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2

33. Refer to the exhibit. A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to 192.168.2.0 fails. What is the cause of this problem?
There is no gateway of last resort at R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
** A default route is not configured on R1.
The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured.

34. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the show ip protocol command on R1. What can be determined from the exhibited output?
The router is using RIPv2.
The router is not forwarding routing updates.
The router is receiving updates for both versions of RIP.
** The FastEthernet0/0 interface is down.

35. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, all routes are advertised on all routers, and the network is fully converged. Which path will the data take to travel between 172.16.1.0/24 and 192.168.100.0/24?
It will travel via A, B, and C.
** It will travel via A, F, E, D, and C.
It will travel via A, G, H, and C.
The traffic will be loadbalanced on all paths.

36. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network administrator requires that R2 always be the DR and maintain adjacency.Which two configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.)
Change the OSPF area of R2 to a higher value.
Change the router ID for R2 by assigning the IP address 172.16.30.5/24 to the Fa0/0 interface.
** Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0.
** Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IPaddress on the other routers.
Configure R1 and R3 with an IP address whose value is higher than that of R2.

37. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?
the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1
** the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1
the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2

38. Refer to the exhibit. All routes are advertised and fully operational on all routers. Which statement is true about the path that the data will take from router A to router B?
** If EIGRP is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.
If RIPv1 is used with default configurations, the data will be loadbalanced on all paths.
If EIGRP and OSPF are both used with default configurations, the data will be sent through paths learned by the OSPF protocol.
If RIPv2 is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.

39. Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces of all routers are configured for OSPF area 0. R3 can ping R1, but the two routers are unable to establish a neighbor adjacency. What should the network administrator do to troubleshoot this problem?
Check if the interfaces of the routers are enabled.
** Check the hello and dead intervals between the routers.
Check the process ID of both routers.
Check if CDP is enabled on all the routers.

40. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?
R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.
** Automatic summarization is disabled.
The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
A classful routing protocol is being used.

41. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
DRAM loads the bootstrap
RAM stores the operating system
Flash executes diagnostics at bootup
** NVRAM stores the configuration file
ROM stores the backup configuration file
** POST runs diagnostics on hardware modules

42. Which routing protocol by default uses bandwidth and delay to calculate the metric of a route?
RIPv1
RIPv2
OSPF
** EIGRP

43. Two routers need to be configured within a single OSPF area. Which two components need to be configured on both routers to achieve this? (Choose two.)
the same process ID
** the same area ID
** network addresses and wildcard masks
the same router ID
the same loop back address

44. Refer to the exhibit. The networks that are connected to R1 have been summarized for R2 as 192.168.136.0/21. Which packet destination address will R2 forward to R1?
192.168.135.1
**192.168.142.1
192.168.144.1
192.168.128.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is running RIP with default parameters. R1 has learned four different paths with the same metrics to network 192.168.6.0. Which path or paths will R1 use to forward a packet that is destined to 192.168.6.10?
** the first path that the router learned.
only the first two of the four paths that the router learned.
the last path that the router learned.
all four paths.

46. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
** It connects multiple IP networks.
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
** It determines the best path to send packets.
It manages the VLAN database.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

47. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the routing process for this network?
A packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
** The packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
The no shutdown command needs to run on the Fa0/0 interface of R1.
The Fa0/0 interface of R2 could be configured with the IP address 172.16.4.1/24.

48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this interface operational?
Switch the cable with a known working cable.
** Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.
Configure the interface as a loopback interface.
Set the encapsulation for the interface.

49. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured properly for a single area OSPF, and R2 has been recently installed in the network. Which set of commands is required to configure a single area OSPF for the networks that are connected to R2?
** R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(configrouter)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

R2(config)# router ospf 2
R2(configrouter)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(configrouter)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 1
R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(configrouter)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(configrouter)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 1

50. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2. What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.)
** A static route will be updated in the routing table.
The traffic from the Internet will be directed to R2.
The traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0/22 will be blocked.
** The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing table.
All the broadcasts will be forwarded via the S0/0/0 interface of R2.

51. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and deencapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
** The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
** The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
** The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

52. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
The routers must elect a designated router.
** The routers must agree on the network type.
** The routers must use the same dead interval.
The routers must exchange link state requests.
The routers must exchange database description packets.

53. Refer to the exhibit. Although both the routers can ping the serial interface of their neighbors, they are unable to ping the Ethernet interfaces of other routers. Which two statements are true for this network? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance has been set to 50 on both routers.
** R2 is learning about network 192.168.1.0.
R1 is learning about network 192.168.2.0.
The network 10.1.1.0 command has not been run on both routers.
** Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.

54. Which two situations require the use of a linkstate protocol? (Choose two.)
** Fast convergence of the network is critical.
** The network is very large.
The network administrator has limited knowledge to configure and troubleshoot routing protocols.The network is a flat network.
The capacity of the router is low.

55. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the displayed output?
EIGRP packets are waiting to be sent to the neighbors.
The adjacencies between the routers are yet to be established.
The IP address 192.168.10.10 is configured at serial interface S0/0/1 of router R2.
** Router R2 is receiving hello packets from a neighbor with the IP address 192.168.10.10 via the R2 S0/0/1 interface.

56. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the problem?
An incorrect IP address is configured between the two routers.
No static route is configured on Router2.
** A routing loop has occurred.
No routing protocol is configured on either of the two routers.

57. Refer to the exhibit. What summarization should R2 use to advertise its LAN networks to R1?
172.16.0.0/24
** 172.16.4.0/22
172.16.4.0/23